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Daily Current Affairs 04 January 2026 Overview:-

 Q.1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) द्वारा 2026 में NBFCs के लिए पूंजी पर्याप्तता (Capital Adequacy) मानदंडों में दी गई हालिया ढील का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?

प्रश्न:1. 2026 में RBI द्वारा NBFCs के लिए पूंजी पर्याप्तता मानदंडों में दी गई हालिया छूट का प्रमुख उद्देश्य क्या है?

A. अवसंरचना परियोजनाओं में विदेशी निवेश को अनिवार्य बनाना
( To mandate foreign investment in infrastructure projects )

B. NBFCs के लिए ऋण वर्गीकरण मानदंडों को समाप्त करना
( To abolish loan classification norms for NBFCs )

C. कम जोखिम वाली परिचालन अवसंरचना परियोजनाओं को ऋण देने को प्रोत्साहित करना
( To encourage lending to lower-risk, operational infrastructure projects )

D. सभी अवसंरचना ऋणों पर एक समान जोखिम भार लागू करना
( To apply a uniform risk weight on all infrastructure loans )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. कम जोखिम वाली परिचालन अवसंरचना परियोजनाओं को ऋण देने को प्रोत्साहित करना
( To encourage lending to lower-risk, operational infrastructure projects )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Reserve Bank of India relaxed capital adequacy norms for NBFCs financing high-quality infrastructure projects by reducing risk weights linked to repayment milestones. This lowers the capital requirement for NBFCs and incentivizes lending to operational, standard, and lower-risk infrastructure projects, thereby improving capital efficiency and safer infrastructure financing.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) ने उच्च–गुणवत्ता वाली अवसंरचना परियोजनाओं को वित्तपोषित करने वाले NBFCs के लिए जोखिम भार (Risk Weight) घटाकर पूंजी पर्याप्तता मानदंडों में ढील दी है। इससे NBFCs को कम पूंजी आरक्षित करनी होगी और वे परिचालन में आ चुकी, मानक (Standard) तथा कम जोखिम वाली अवसंरचना परियोजनाओं को अधिक ऋण देने के लिए प्रोत्साहित होंगे, जिससे सुरक्षित और प्रभावी अवसंरचना वित्तपोषण संभव होगा।

Q.2. जनवरी–जून 2026 अवधि के लिए Floating Rate Savings Bond, 2020 (Taxable) की ब्याज दर 8.05% निर्धारित किए जाने का मुख्य आधार क्या है?
Question: What is the primary basis for fixing the interest rate of the Floating Rate Savings Bond, 2020 (Taxable) at 8.05% for January–June 2026?

A. राष्ट्रीय बचत प्रमाणपत्र (NSC) की ब्याज दर पर 0.35% का अतिरिक्त स्प्रेड
( National Savings Certificate (NSC) interest rate plus a spread of 0.35% )

B. उपभोक्ता मूल्य सूचकांक (CPI) की छह माह की औसत वृद्धि दर
( Six-month average rise in Consumer Price Index )

C. RBI की रेपो दर पर आधारित परिवर्तनीय ब्याज दर
( Variable interest rate linked to RBI’s repo rate )

D. केंद्र सरकार द्वारा पूर्व–निर्धारित स्थिर ब्याज दर
( A pre-fixed interest rate decided by the Central Government )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. राष्ट्रीय बचत प्रमाणपत्र (NSC) की ब्याज दर पर 0.35% का अतिरिक्त स्प्रेड
( National Savings Certificate (NSC) interest rate plus a spread of 0.35% )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Floating Rate Savings Bond, 2020 (Taxable) carries an interest rate that is reset every six months as per the Government notification of 2020. The coupon rate is fixed at 35 basis points above the prevailing NSC rate. For January–June 2026, the NSC rate is 7.70%, making the FRSB rate 8.05%. These bonds are issued through the Reserve Bank of India and are fully taxable.

Hindi:
फ्लोटिंग रेट सेविंग्स बॉन्ड, 2020 (टैक्सेबल) की ब्याज दर हर छह महीने में पुनः निर्धारित की जाती है। इसका कूपन रेट राष्ट्रीय बचत प्रमाणपत्र (NSC) की मौजूदा ब्याज दर से 0.35% अधिक होता है। जनवरी–जून 2026 के लिए NSC की दर 7.70% होने के कारण FRSB की ब्याज दर 8.05% तय की गई है। ये बॉन्ड भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) के माध्यम से जारी किए जाते हैं और इन पर मिलने वाला ब्याज पूर्णतः करयोग्य होता है।

Q.3. RBI द्वारा मार्च 2027 तक अनुसूचित वाणिज्यिक बैंकों (SCBs) की परिसंपत्ति गुणवत्ता पर किए गए मैक्रो स्ट्रेस टेस्ट का मुख्य निष्कर्ष क्या है?
Question: What is the key inference from the RBI’s macro stress tests regarding the asset quality of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) up to March 2027?

A. सभी परिदृश्यों में GNPA अनुपात 2% से नीचे रहेगा
( GNPA ratio will remain below 2% under all scenarios )

B. प्रतिकूल परिस्थितियों में अधिकांश बैंक न्यूनतम CRAR मानदंड का उल्लंघन करेंगे
( Most banks will breach the minimum CRAR requirement under adverse scenarios )

C. प्रतिकूल परिदृश्यों में CET1 अनुपात में सुधार होगा
( CET1 ratio will improve under adverse scenarios )

D. गंभीर तनाव की स्थिति में भी बैंकिंग प्रणाली पर्याप्त पूंजी के साथ लचीली बनी रहेगी
( Even under severe stress, the banking system will remain resilient with adequate capital )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. गंभीर तनाव की स्थिति में भी बैंकिंग प्रणाली पर्याप्त पूंजी के साथ लचीली बनी रहेगी
( Even under severe stress, the banking system will remain resilient with adequate capital )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
According to the macro stress tests conducted by the Reserve Bank of India, even under adverse scenarios where the GNPA ratio may rise to 3.2% or 4.2% by March 2027, no bank is projected to breach the minimum CRAR requirement of 9%. This indicates strong capital buffers and resilience of Scheduled Commercial Banks, alongside improving asset quality under the baseline scenario.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) द्वारा किए गए मैक्रो स्ट्रेस टेस्ट के अनुसार, भले ही प्रतिकूल परिदृश्यों में GNPA अनुपात मार्च 2027 तक 3.2% या 4.2% तक बढ़ जाए, फिर भी किसी भी बैंक के न्यूनतम CRAR (9%) मानदंड का उल्लंघन करने की संभावना नहीं है। यह दर्शाता है कि भारतीय बैंकिंग प्रणाली के पास मजबूत पूंजी भंडार है और वह गंभीर आर्थिक तनाव की स्थिति में भी लचीली बनी हुई है।

Q.4. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE) को Jan Samarth Portal पर लागू करने का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
Question: What is the primary objective of operationalising the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE) on the Jan Samarth Portal?

A. निर्यातकों को प्रत्यक्ष सब्सिडी प्रदान करना
( To provide direct subsidies to exporters )

B. निर्यातक MSMEs को अतिरिक्त कोलैटरल–फ्री ऋण उपलब्ध कराकर तरलता बढ़ाना
( To enhance liquidity by enabling additional collateral-free credit to exporter MSMEs )

C. भारत के सभी निर्यातों को सरकारी गारंटी के अंतर्गत लाना
( To bring all Indian exports under sovereign guarantee )

D. निर्यात ऋण पर ब्याज दरों को स्थायी रूप से कम करना
( To permanently reduce interest rates on export credit )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. निर्यातक MSMEs को अतिरिक्त कोलैटरल–फ्री ऋण उपलब्ध कराकर तरलता बढ़ाना
( To enhance liquidity by enabling additional collateral-free credit to exporter MSMEs )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE), operationalised by the Department of Financial Services through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited, provides a 100% government guarantee for additional loans extended by Member Lending Institutions. The core objective is to improve liquidity for exporter MSMEs by enabling collateral-free credit, ensuring business continuity, sustaining employment, and strengthening India’s export ecosystem amid global uncertainties.

Hindi:
Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE) को वित्तीय सेवा विभाग (DFS) द्वारा National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC) के माध्यम से लागू किया गया है। इस योजना के अंतर्गत सदस्य ऋण संस्थानों द्वारा दिए गए अतिरिक्त ऋण पर 100% सरकारी गारंटी प्रदान की जाती है। इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य निर्यातक MSMEs को बिना जमानत अतिरिक्त ऋण उपलब्ध कराकर उनकी तरलता में सुधार करना है, ताकि संचालन निरंतर बना रहे, रोजगार सुरक्षित रहे और भारत का निर्यात तंत्र मजबूत हो सके।

Q.5. वर्ष 2025 के दौरान बैंकों पर लगाए गए लगभग ₹27 करोड़ के दंड से संबंधित RBI की कार्रवाई का मुख्य संकेत क्या है?
Question: What is the key implication of the RBI imposing nearly ₹27 crore in penalties on banks during 2025?

A. नियामक अनुपालन और सुशासन को सख्ती से लागू करने पर RBI का बढ़ता जोर
( RBI’s strengthened focus on enforcing regulatory compliance and governance )

B. केवल सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंकों में नियामकीय विफलताओं की अधिकता
( Regulatory failures are largely confined to public sector banks )

C. विदेशी बैंकों द्वारा प्राथमिक क्षेत्र ऋण नियमों का व्यापक उल्लंघन
( Widespread violation of priority sector norms by foreign banks )

D. बैंकों के पूंजी पर्याप्तता अनुपात में तीव्र गिरावट
( Sharp deterioration in banks’ capital adequacy ratios )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. नियामक अनुपालन और सुशासन को सख्ती से लागू करने पर RBI का बढ़ता जोर
( RBI’s strengthened focus on enforcing regulatory compliance and governance )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The penalties imposed by the Reserve Bank of India across 40 cases in 2025 reflect its proactive supervisory approach. The fines covered private, public, small finance, and foreign banks for lapses in areas such as priority sector lending, KYC, cybersecurity, governance, and handling of unclaimed deposits. This demonstrates RBI’s intent to strengthen compliance culture, risk management, and depositor protection across the banking system.

Hindi:
वर्ष 2025 में 40 मामलों में लगाए गए दंड यह दर्शाते हैं कि भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) नियामकीय निगरानी को और अधिक सख्ती से लागू कर रहा है। ये दंड निजी, सार्वजनिक, स्मॉल फाइनेंस तथा विदेशी बैंकों पर प्राथमिक क्षेत्र ऋण, KYC, साइबर सुरक्षा, सुशासन और निष्क्रिय जमाओं से संबंधित नियमों के उल्लंघन के कारण लगाए गए। इससे स्पष्ट होता है कि RBI का मुख्य उद्देश्य बैंकिंग प्रणाली में अनुपालन संस्कृति, जोखिम प्रबंधन और जमाकर्ताओं के हितों की सुरक्षा को मजबूत करना है।

Q.6. FY25 में तनावग्रस्त ऋणों (Stressed Loans) के समाधान को लेकर RBI की रिपोर्ट का मुख्य निष्कर्ष क्या है?
Question: What is the key conclusion of the RBI report regarding strategies adopted for resolving stressed loans in FY25?

A. सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंक ARCs के माध्यम से ऋण बिक्री में अग्रणी रहे
( Public sector banks led the sale of stressed assets to ARCs )

B. सभी बैंकों ने पुनर्गठन (Restructuring) को प्राथमिक समाधान रणनीति के रूप में अपनाया
( All banks primarily relied on restructuring as the resolution strategy )

C. निजी और विदेशी बैंकों ने बाजार–आधारित समाधान, विशेषकर ARCs को ऋण बिक्री, को अधिक प्राथमिकता दी
( Private and foreign banks increasingly preferred market-based resolution, especially sale to ARCs )

D. FY25 में ARCs को NPAs की बिक्री में गिरावट देखी गई
( There was a decline in the sale of NPAs to ARCs in FY25 )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. निजी और विदेशी बैंकों ने बाजार–आधारित समाधान, विशेषकर ARCs को ऋण बिक्री, को अधिक प्राथमिकता दी
( Private and foreign banks increasingly preferred market-based resolution, especially sale to ARCs )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Reserve Bank of India highlighted divergent strategies in FY25, noting that Private Sector Banks sold 35.9% of their prior-year GNPA to Asset Reconstruction Companies, while Foreign Banks sold an even higher 55.5%. In contrast, Public Sector Banks sold only about 2.6–3%. At the system level, NPA sales to ARCs rose to 12.4% in FY25 from 5.8% in FY24, underscoring a shift toward market-based resolution.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) की रिपोर्ट के अनुसार FY25 में बैंकों की रणनीतियों में स्पष्ट अंतर दिखा। निजी बैंकों ने अपनी पिछली वर्ष की GNPA का 35.9% और विदेशी बैंकों ने 55.5% ARCs को बेचा, जबकि सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंकों ने केवल 2.6–3% ही बेचा। समग्र रूप से FY25 में ARCs को NPAs की बिक्री 12.4% तक बढ़ गई (FY24 में 5.8%), जो तनावग्रस्त परिसंपत्तियों के समाधान में बाजार–आधारित दृष्टिकोण की ओर बढ़ते रुझान को दर्शाता है।

Q.7. भारतीय बीमा क्षेत्र में 100% प्रत्यक्ष विदेशी निवेश (FDI) की अनुमति से संबंधित हालिया नियमों का मुख्य प्रभाव क्या है?
Question: What is the primary impact of the recent rules allowing 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India’s insurance sector?

A. बीमा कंपनियों पर सरकारी स्वामित्व को अनिवार्य बनाना
( Mandating government ownership in insurance companies )

B. विदेशी निवेशकों के लिए पूर्ण स्वामित्व की अनुमति देते हुए कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस को सरल बनाना
( Allowing full foreign ownership while simplifying corporate governance norms )

C. बीमा कंपनियों के लिए सॉल्वेंसी मार्जिन मानदंडों को समाप्त करना
( Eliminating solvency margin requirements for insurance companies )

D. सभी बीमा कंपनियों के लिए लाभांश प्रत्यावर्तन (Dividend Repatriation) पर प्रतिबंध लगाना
( Imposing restrictions on dividend repatriation for all insurers )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. विदेशी निवेशकों के लिए पूर्ण स्वामित्व की अनुमति देते हुए कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस को सरल बनाना
( Allowing full foreign ownership while simplifying corporate governance norms )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The rules notified by the Ministry of Finance align insurance regulations with the newly approved 100% FDI limit. They remove earlier governance constraints—such as majority Indian-resident directors, profit retention mandates, and prior approvals for dividend repatriation—while retaining a safeguard that at least one key leadership role (CEO/MD/Chairperson) must be held by a resident Indian citizen. Overall, the reform enables full foreign ownership with simplified governance to attract capital and deepen insurance penetration.

Hindi:
वित्त मंत्रालय द्वारा अधिसूचित नए नियम बीमा क्षेत्र में 100% FDI की अनुमति के अनुरूप नियामकीय ढांचे को सरल बनाते हैं। इनमें भारतीय निवासी निदेशकों की बहुलता, लाभ आरक्षण जैसी शर्तों और लाभांश प्रत्यावर्तन के लिए पूर्व अनुमोदन जैसी बाधाओं को हटाया गया है, जबकि यह सुरक्षा बनाए रखी गई है कि कम से कम एक प्रमुख नेतृत्व पद (CEO/MD/Chairperson) भारतीय नागरिक के पास होगा। इस प्रकार, ये नियम पूर्ण विदेशी स्वामित्व को सक्षम बनाते हुए कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस को सरल करते हैं।

Q.8. RBI की हालिया चेतावनी के अनुसार, तनाव (Stress) परिदृश्यों में कुछ बैंकों द्वारा Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB) का उपयोग किए जाने का मुख्य अर्थ क्या है?
Question: According to the RBI’s recent warning, what is the key implication of some banks needing to utilise their Capital Conservation Buffers (CCBs) under stress scenarios?

A. न्यूनतम पूंजी मानदंडों का उल्लंघन किए बिना संभावित घाटों को अवशोषित करने की व्यवस्था
( A mechanism to absorb potential losses without breaching minimum capital norms )

B. बैंकों द्वारा ऋण विस्तार पर तत्काल प्रतिबंध लगाया जाना
( Immediate restriction on credit expansion by banks )

C. सभी बैंकों के लिए अनिवार्य पूंजी जुटाने की आवश्यकता
( Mandatory capital raising for all banks )

D. बैंकिंग प्रणाली में संरचनात्मक पूंजी संकट का संकेत
( An indication of a structural capital crisis in the banking system )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. न्यूनतम पूंजी मानदंडों का उल्लंघन किए बिना संभावित घाटों को अवशोषित करने की व्यवस्था
( A mechanism to absorb potential losses without breaching minimum capital norms )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Reserve Bank of India highlighted that under moderate to severe stress scenarios, a limited number of Scheduled Commercial Banks may need to draw down their Capital Conservation Buffers (CCBs). CCBs—set at 2.5% of risk-weighted assets and composed of CET1 capital—are designed to act as an additional cushion to absorb losses without breaching the minimum CRAR of 9%. This reflects capital resilience rather than a systemic crisis.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) के अनुसार, मध्यम से गंभीर तनाव परिदृश्यों में कुछ अनुसूचित वाणिज्यिक बैंक Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB) का उपयोग कर सकते हैं। जोखिम–भारित परिसंपत्तियों के 2.5% के बराबर और CET1 पूंजी से बने CCB का उद्देश्य न्यूनतम CRAR (9%) का उल्लंघन किए बिना संभावित घाटों को अवशोषित करना है। यह बैंकिंग प्रणाली की पूंजीगत लचीलापन दर्शाता है, न कि किसी संरचनात्मक संकट का संकेत।

Q.9. RBI की रिपोर्ट के अनुसार मार्च 2025 तक भारत में घरेलू ऋण (Household Debt) के बढ़ने का मुख्य निष्कर्ष क्या है?
Question: According to the RBI report, what is the key inference from the rise in household debt in India by March 2025?

A. घरेलू ऋण का स्तर भारत में प्रणालीगत वित्तीय संकट का संकेत देता है
( The level of household debt indicates a systemic financial crisis in India )

B. घरेलू ऋण मुख्यतः कृषि क्षेत्र तक सीमित है
( Household debt is largely confined to the agricultural sector )

C. घरेलू ऋण में वृद्धि के बावजूद यह अधिकांश उभरती अर्थव्यवस्थाओं की तुलना में कम और प्रबंधनीय बना हुआ है
( Despite rising levels, household debt remains lower than most peer economies and manageable )

D. घरेलू ऋण का अधिकांश भाग केवल दीर्घकालिक आवास ऋणों से बना है
( Most household debt consists solely of long-term housing loans )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. घरेलू ऋण में वृद्धि के बावजूद यह अधिकांश उभरती अर्थव्यवस्थाओं की तुलना में कम और प्रबंधनीय बना हुआ है
( Despite rising levels, household debt remains lower than most peer economies and manageable )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
As per the Reserve Bank of India, household debt in India increased to 41.3% of GDP by March 2025, exceeding the five-year average. However, the RBI notes that this level is still lower than that of most peer emerging economies, and borrowing is diversified across consumption, housing, and productive purposes. This suggests that the overall risk remains manageable rather than destabilising.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) की रिपोर्ट के अनुसार मार्च 2025 तक घरेलू ऋण GDP के 41.3% तक पहुँच गया, जो पाँच–वर्षीय औसत से अधिक है। फिर भी RBI के अनुसार यह स्तर अधिकांश समान उभरती अर्थव्यवस्थाओं की तुलना में कम है और घरेलू ऋण उपभोग, आवास तथा उत्पादक गतिविधियों में विविध रूप से वितरित है। इसलिए कुल मिलाकर घरेलू ऋण से जुड़ा जोखिम प्रबंधनीय बना हुआ है।

Q.10. RBI द्वारा NBFCs पर किए गए हालिया स्ट्रेस टेस्ट से मुख्य जोखिम संकेत क्या उभरकर सामने आता है?
Question: What is the key risk signal highlighted by the RBI’s recent stress tests on NBFCs?

A. NBFCs की परिसंपत्ति गुणवत्ता में तीव्र गिरावट
( Sharp deterioration in asset quality of NBFCs )

B. NBFCs में तरलता संकट पूरी तरह समाप्त हो चुका है
( Liquidity stress has completely disappeared in NBFCs )

C. सभी NBFCs न्यूनतम पूंजी मानदंडों से काफी ऊपर बने रहेंगे
( All NBFCs will remain well above minimum capital norms )

D. बड़े उधारकर्ताओं पर अत्यधिक निर्भरता के कारण पूंजी और तरलता पर जोखिम
( Capital and liquidity risks arising from high borrower concentration )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. बड़े उधारकर्ताओं पर अत्यधिक निर्भरता के कारण पूंजी और तरलता पर जोखिम
( Capital and liquidity risks arising from high borrower concentration )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Reserve Bank of India cautioned that if the top three borrowers of NBFCs default, the system-level CRAR could fall by over 220 bps, pushing 9 NBFCs below the 15% regulatory minimum. A similar outcome under group-level defaults further underscores concentration risk. Additionally, liquidity stress tests show that under severe scenarios, more NBFCs could face significant liquidity mismatches—highlighting vulnerabilities stemming from reliance on a few large borrowers despite stable asset quality.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) के अनुसार यदि NBFCs के शीर्ष तीन उधारकर्ता डिफॉल्ट करते हैं, तो प्रणाली–स्तर पर CRAR में 220 bps से अधिक की गिरावट आ सकती है और 9 NBFCs 15% के न्यूनतम पूंजी मानदंड से नीचे चले जाएंगे। समूह–स्तरीय डिफॉल्ट की स्थिति में यह जोखिम और बढ़ जाता है। साथ ही, तरलता स्ट्रेस टेस्ट बताते हैं कि गंभीर परिदृश्यों में अधिक NBFCs में तरलता असंतुलन उभर सकता है—जो यह दर्शाता है कि कुछ बड़े उधारकर्ताओं पर अत्यधिक निर्भरता पूंजी और तरलता दोनों के लिए जोखिम पैदा करती है।

Q.11. “RBI Talks: Paisa to Policy” पॉडकास्ट श्रृंखला शुरू करने के पीछे RBI का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
Question: What is the primary objective behind launching the “RBI Talks: Paisa to Policy” podcast series?

A. आम नागरिकों के लिए वित्तीय नीतियों और बैंकिंग अवधारणाओं को सरल बनाकर वित्तीय साक्षरता बढ़ाना
( To enhance financial literacy by simplifying financial policies and banking concepts for citizens )

B. बैंकों के लिए नए नियामकीय दिशानिर्देश जारी करना
( To issue new regulatory guidelines for banks )

C. मौद्रिक नीति निर्णयों पर बाजार की प्रतिक्रिया का आकलन करना
( To assess market reactions to monetary policy decisions )

D. RBI कर्मचारियों के लिए आंतरिक प्रशिक्षण मंच विकसित करना
( To develop an internal training platform for RBI staff )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. आम नागरिकों के लिए वित्तीय नीतियों और बैंकिंग अवधारणाओं को सरल बनाकर वित्तीय साक्षरता बढ़ाना
( To enhance financial literacy by simplifying financial policies and banking concepts for citizens )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Reserve Bank of India launched the “RBI Talks: Paisa to Policy” podcast as a citizen outreach initiative to demystify complex financial topics and make RBI policies more accessible. By using a popular digital medium, the RBI aims to promote financial awareness, literacy, and inclusion, with the first episode explaining KYC in simple terms.

Hindi:
भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) ने “RBI Talks: Paisa to Policy” पॉडकास्ट श्रृंखला को आम नागरिकों तक पहुँचने के उद्देश्य से शुरू किया है, ताकि जटिल वित्तीय और बैंकिंग विषयों को सरल भाषा में समझाया जा सके। डिजिटल प्लेटफॉर्म का उपयोग करते हुए RBI वित्तीय साक्षरता, जागरूकता और समावेशन को बढ़ावा देना चाहता है, जिसकी पहली कड़ी में KYC की अवधारणा को सरल रूप में समझाया गया है।

Q.12. कार/जीप/वैन FASTag के लिए Know Your Vehicle (KYV) आवश्यकता को वापस लेने के NHAI के निर्णय का मुख्य तर्क क्या है?
Question: What is the primary rationale behind NHAI’s decision to withdraw the Know Your Vehicle (KYV) requirement for Car/Jeep/Van FASTags?

A. FASTag से जुड़े सभी पोस्ट–एक्टिवेशन सत्यापन को समाप्त करना
( To eliminate all post-activation verifications related to FASTag )

B. निजी वाहनों के लिए टोल संग्रह प्रणाली को समाप्त करना
( To abolish toll collection for private vehicles )

C. कम्यूटर सुविधा बढ़ाना और पोस्ट–एक्टिवेशन की परेशानियों को कम करना
( To enhance commuter convenience and reduce post-activation hassles )

D. वाहन सत्यापन की जिम्मेदारी पूरी तरह वाहन मालिकों पर डालना
( To shift the entire responsibility of vehicle verification to vehicle owners )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. कम्यूटर सुविधा बढ़ाना और पोस्ट–एक्टिवेशन की परेशानियों को कम करना
( To enhance commuter convenience and reduce post-activation hassles )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The National Highways Authority of India withdrew the KYV requirement for car/jeep/van FASTags to improve user convenience by eliminating redundant post-activation verification that caused delays and repeated follow-ups. The revised framework strengthens pre-activation checks, mandates verification through the VAHAN database (or RC-based verification where VAHAN data is unavailable), and restricts KYV to exceptional cases such as misuse or complaints—balancing ease of use with system integrity.

Hindi:
भारतीय राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग प्राधिकरण (NHAI) ने कार/जीप/वैन FASTag के लिए KYV आवश्यकता इसलिए वापस ली ताकि यात्रियों की सुविधा बढ़े और पोस्ट–एक्टिवेशन सत्यापन से होने वाली परेशानियाँ समाप्त हों। नए ढांचे में प्री–एक्टिवेशन सत्यापन को मजबूत किया गया है, VAHAN डेटाबेस (या उपलब्ध न होने पर RC-आधारित सत्यापन) को अनिवार्य किया गया है, और KYV को केवल अपवादात्मक मामलों (जैसे दुरुपयोग/शिकायत) तक सीमित रखा गया है—जिससे सुविधा और प्रणाली की विश्वसनीयता दोनों बनी रहती हैं।

Q.13. लो–ऐश मेटलर्जिकल कोक (Low-ash Metallurgical Coke) के आयात पर प्रतिबंध को बढ़ाने के सरकार के निर्णय का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
Question: What is the primary objective behind the Government’s decision to extend import restrictions on low-ash metallurgical coke?

A. इस्पात उद्योग में लो–ऐश मेटलर्जिकल कोक के उपयोग को पूर्णतः समाप्त करना
( To completely eliminate the use of low-ash metallurgical coke in the steel industry )

B. घरेलू आपूर्ति और इस्पात क्षेत्र में संतुलन बनाए रखते हुए आयात को विनियमित करना
( To regulate imports while balancing domestic availability for the steel sector )

C. सभी प्रकार के मेटलर्जिकल कोक के आयात पर पूर्ण प्रतिबंध लगाना
( To impose a complete ban on imports of all types of metallurgical coke )

D. उच्च ऐश कंटेंट वाले मेटलर्जिकल कोक के आयात को प्रतिबंधित करना
( To restrict imports of high-ash metallurgical coke )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. घरेलू आपूर्ति और इस्पात क्षेत्र में संतुलन बनाए रखते हुए आयात को विनियमित करना
( To regulate imports while balancing domestic availability for the steel sector )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The import restriction, notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, seeks to regulate imports of low-ash metallurgical coke (ash content below 18%) through allocation-based mechanisms. Since this input is critical for blast-furnace steelmaking, the policy aims to protect domestic producers, ensure calibrated availability for steel plants, and manage import dependence, while keeping higher-ash coke freely importable.

Hindi:
वाणिज्य एवं उद्योग मंत्रालय के अंतर्गत महानिदेशालय विदेश व्यापार (DGFT) द्वारा अधिसूचित यह निर्णय 18% से कम ऐश कंटेंट वाले मेटलर्जिकल कोक के आयात को आवंटन/नियंत्रित तंत्र के माध्यम से विनियमित करने के लिए है। चूँकि यह इस्पात निर्माण (विशेषकर ब्लास्ट फर्नेस) के लिए एक महत्वपूर्ण कच्चा माल है, इसलिए यह नीति घरेलू उत्पादकों की सुरक्षा, इस्पात उद्योग की आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति और आयात पर निर्भरता के संतुलन को सुनिश्चित करती है, जबकि 18% से अधिक ऐश वाले कोक का आयात मुक्त रखा गया है।

Q.14. गुजरात में स्थापित की जा रही Indian AI Research Organization (IAIRO) की संरचना और संचालन मॉडल का मुख्य विशिष्ट पहलू क्या है?
Question: What is the most distinctive feature of the structure and operational model of the Indian AI Research Organization (IAIRO) being set up in Gujarat?

A. यह पूरी तरह केंद्र सरकार द्वारा नियंत्रित और वित्तपोषित संस्था होगी
( It will be a fully Central Government–controlled and funded body )

B. यह केवल निजी क्षेत्र द्वारा संचालित एक लाभकारी (for-profit) संगठन होगा
( It will be a purely private, for-profit organization )

C. यह केवल शैक्षणिक अनुसंधान तक सीमित एक विश्वविद्यालय आधारित संस्थान होगा
( It will be a university-based body limited to academic research )

D. यह सार्वजनिक–निजी भागीदारी (PPP) मॉडल पर आधारित, Section 8 के तहत पंजीकृत एक गैर–लाभकारी SPV होगी
( It will be a non-profit SPV registered under Section 8, operating on a Public–Private Partnership model )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. यह सार्वजनिक–निजी भागीदारी (PPP) मॉडल पर आधारित, Section 8 के तहत पंजीकृत एक गैर–लाभकारी SPV होगी
( It will be a non-profit SPV registered under Section 8, operating on a Public–Private Partnership model )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Indian AI Research Organization (IAIRO), approved by the Government of Gujarat, will be India’s first state-led AI research body operating under a Public–Private Partnership (PPP) framework. It will be registered as a non-profit entity under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 and structured as a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) with equal financial participation from the Centre, the State, and the private partner. Located at GIFT City, it aims to integrate advanced AI research, industry collaboration, and policy-oriented innovation.

Hindi:
Indian AI Research Organization (IAIRO), जिसे Gujarat सरकार ने स्वीकृति दी है, भारत की पहली राज्य–प्रेरित AI अनुसंधान संस्था होगी। यह सार्वजनिक–निजी भागीदारी (PPP) मॉडल पर कार्य करेगी और Companies Act, 2013 की Section 8 के अंतर्गत गैर–लाभकारी संस्था के रूप में Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) के तौर पर पंजीकृत होगी। केंद्र, राज्य और निजी भागीदार—तीनों की समान भागीदारी के साथ यह संस्था GIFT City में स्थापित की जा रही है, जिसका उद्देश्य उन्नत AI अनुसंधान, नीति समर्थन और उद्योग–शैक्षणिक सहयोग को बढ़ावा देना है।

Q.15. NITI Aayog द्वारा Gujarat Biotechnology University (GBU) की सराहना का मुख्य कारण क्या है?
Question: What is the primary reason for NITI Aayog praising Gujarat Biotechnology University (GBU)?

A. यह पूरी तरह ऑनलाइन शिक्षा पर आधारित भारत का पहला विश्वविद्यालय है
( It is India’s first university fully based on online education )

B. यह उच्च शिक्षा के वैश्वीकरण का एक मॉडल प्रस्तुत करता है, जो अंतरराष्ट्रीय सहयोग और ब्रेन ड्रेन को कम करने पर केंद्रित है
( It presents a model for globalisation of higher education by promoting international collaboration and reducing brain drain )

C. यह केवल राज्य सरकार द्वारा वित्तपोषित एक पारंपरिक जैव–प्रौद्योगिकी संस्थान है
( It is a conventional biotechnology institute funded only by the state government )

D. इसका मुख्य उद्देश्य विदेशी छात्रों को भारत से बाहर भेजना है
( Its primary objective is to send Indian students abroad )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. यह उच्च शिक्षा के वैश्वीकरण का एक मॉडल प्रस्तुत करता है, जो अंतरराष्ट्रीय सहयोग और ब्रेन ड्रेन को कम करने पर केंद्रित है
( It presents a model for globalisation of higher education by promoting international collaboration and reducing brain drain )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The NITI Aayog highlighted Gujarat Biotechnology University at GIFT City as a benchmark for the globalisation of higher education. Established in 2020 in partnership with the University of Edinburgh, GBU aligns with India’s vision to attract global academia, retain domestic talent, and curb brain drain by offering international-quality education within India.

Hindi:
NITI Aayog ने Gujarat Biotechnology University (GIFT City) की सराहना इसलिए की क्योंकि यह उच्च शिक्षा के वैश्वीकरण का एक प्रभावी मॉडल प्रस्तुत करता है। 2020 में University of Edinburgh के सहयोग से स्थापित यह विश्वविद्यालय अंतरराष्ट्रीय पाठ्यक्रम, शोध सहयोग और वैश्विक अकादमिक मानकों के माध्यम से ब्रेन ड्रेन को कम करने और भारत को वैश्विक शिक्षा केंद्र बनाने की दिशा में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाता है।

Q.16/. असम द्वारा देश का पहला 8वाँ राज्य वेतन आयोग (8th State Pay Commission) गठित करने का मुख्य महत्व क्या है?
Question: What is the primary significance of Assam constituting India’s first 8th State Pay Commission?

A. यह अन्य राज्यों और केंद्र से पहले वेतन सुधार प्रक्रिया शुरू कर कर्मचारियों को शीघ्र स्पष्टता प्रदान करता है
( It initiates pay reforms ahead of other states and the Centre, giving early clarity to employees )

B. यह केवल पेंशनभोगियों के लिए वेतन संशोधन तक सीमित है
( It is limited only to pension revisions )

C. यह 7वें राज्य वेतन आयोग की अवधि को आगे बढ़ाने के लिए गठित किया गया है
( It has been constituted to extend the tenure of the 7th State Pay Commission )

D. इसका उद्देश्य केंद्र सरकार को 8वाँ केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग गठित करने के लिए बाध्य करना है
( It aims to compel the Union Government to constitute the 8th Central Pay Commission )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. यह अन्य राज्यों और केंद्र से पहले वेतन सुधार प्रक्रिया शुरू कर कर्मचारियों को शीघ्र स्पष्टता प्रदान करता है
( It initiates pay reforms ahead of other states and the Centre, giving early clarity to employees )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
Assam became the first state in India to constitute an 8th State Pay Commission, even before the commencement of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Announced by Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma, this proactive step provides early clarity to government employees and pensioners regarding future pay and pension revisions and may allow faster implementation compared to other states.

Hindi:
Assam देश का पहला राज्य बन गया है जिसने 8वाँ राज्य वेतन आयोग गठित किया है, जबकि 8वें केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग की प्रक्रिया अभी शुरू भी नहीं हुई है। मुख्यमंत्री Himanta Biswa Sarma द्वारा घोषित यह कदम राज्य कर्मचारियों और पेंशनभोगियों को वेतन संशोधन के संबंध में शीघ्र स्पष्टता प्रदान करता है और अन्य राज्यों की तुलना में तेज़ी से सिफारिशें लागू होने की संभावना बढ़ाता है।

Q.17. यूरोपीय संघ (EU) द्वारा जनवरी 2026 से लागू Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) के संदर्भ में भारत ने इसका विरोध क्यों किया है?
Question: Why has India officially opposed the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) implemented from January 2026?

A. क्योंकि यह सभी आयातों पर समान रूप से शून्य कार्बन कर लागू करता है
( Because it imposes a uniform zero carbon tax on all imports )

B. क्योंकि यह केवल विकसित देशों के निर्यातकों को छूट प्रदान करता है
( Because it provides exemptions only to exporters from developed countries )

C. क्योंकि यह वैश्विक उत्सर्जन को बड़े पैमाने पर कम करने में अत्यंत प्रभावी है
( Because it is highly effective in significantly reducing global emissions )

D. क्योंकि यह एकतरफा और भेदभावपूर्ण उपाय है, जो विकासशील देशों के निर्यात और ऊर्जा संक्रमण प्रयासों को नुकसान पहुँचा सकता है
( Because it is a unilateral and discriminatory measure that can hurt developing countries’ exports and energy transition efforts )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. क्योंकि यह एकतरफा और भेदभावपूर्ण उपाय है, जो विकासशील देशों के निर्यात और ऊर्जा संक्रमण प्रयासों को नुकसान पहुँचा सकता है
( Because it is a unilateral and discriminatory measure that can hurt developing countries’ exports and energy transition efforts )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The European Union introduced CBAM to align import prices with embedded carbon costs and prevent carbon leakage. However, India has opposed it as unilateral and arbitrary, arguing that it imposes additional compliance costs on exporters—particularly in steel and aluminium—without adequately considering common but differentiated responsibilities. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development has also cautioned that CBAM may restrict market access for developing countries while delivering limited global emissions reduction.

Hindi:
European Union ने CBAM को आयातित वस्तुओं में निहित कार्बन लागत के अनुरूप करने और कार्बन लीकेज रोकने के लिए लागू किया है। लेकिन भारत ने इसे एकतरफा और मनमाना बताते हुए विरोध किया है, क्योंकि इससे विशेषकर इस्पात और एल्युमिनियम जैसे क्षेत्रों में विकासशील देशों के निर्यातकों पर अतिरिक्त लागत पड़ती है और ऊर्जा संक्रमण के प्रयास कमजोर होते हैं। साथ ही United Nations Conference on Trade and Development ने भी चेताया है कि CBAM से विकासशील देशों की बाजार पहुँच सीमित हो सकती है, जबकि वैश्विक उत्सर्जन में कमी सीमित रहेगी।

Q.18. गंगा जल बँटवारा संधि के अंतिम वर्ष में भारत और बांग्लादेश द्वारा संयुक्त जल मापन शुरू करने का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
Question: What is the primary objective of India and Bangladesh initiating joint water measurement as the Ganges Water Sharing Treaty enters its final year?

A. संधि के क्रियान्वयन और नवीनीकरण वार्ताओं के लिए सटीक, संयुक्त रूप से सत्यापित प्रवाह डेटा तैयार करना
( To generate accurate, jointly verified river-flow data for treaty implementation and renewal negotiations )

B. दोनों देशों के बीच जल विवाद को अंतरराष्ट्रीय न्यायालय में ले जाना
( To take the water dispute to the International Court of Justice )

C. मानसून अवधि के दौरान जल प्रवाह को स्थायी रूप से नियंत्रित करना
( To permanently regulate river flow during the monsoon )

D. नदी परिवहन परियोजनाओं के लिए नई नहरों का निर्माण शुरू करना
( To initiate construction of new canals for inland navigation )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. संधि के क्रियान्वयन और नवीनीकरण वार्ताओं के लिए सटीक, संयुक्त रूप से सत्यापित प्रवाह डेटा तैयार करना
( To generate accurate, jointly verified river-flow data for treaty implementation and renewal negotiations )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
India and Bangladesh have begun joint water measurement on the Ganga/Padma at Farakka (India) and upstream of the Hardinge Bridge (Bangladesh). With the 30-year water-sharing treaty nearing expiry in December 2026, jointly verified flow data is essential to ensure effective implementation and to support evidence-based renewal negotiations between the two countries.

Hindi:
India और Bangladesh ने गंगा/पद्मा पर फरक्का (भारत) और हार्डिंज ब्रिज के पास (बांग्लादेश) संयुक्त जल मापन शुरू किया है। दिसंबर 2026 में 30-वर्षीय संधि की अवधि समाप्त होने से पहले विश्वसनीय, संयुक्त रूप से सत्यापित प्रवाह आँकड़े संधि के प्रभावी क्रियान्वयन और नवीनीकरण वार्ताओं के लिए अत्यंत महत्वपूर्ण हैं।

Q.19. जनवरी 2026 में एयर मार्शल नागेश कपूर की भारतीय वायु सेना में नियुक्ति का प्रमुख महत्व क्या है?
Question: What is the primary significance of Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor’s appointment in the Indian Air Force in January 2026?

A. उन्होंने भारतीय वायु सेना के पहले विदेशी प्रशिक्षित उप प्रमुख के रूप में कार्यभार संभाला
( He became the first foreign-trained Vice Chief of the Air Staff )

B. वे प्रशिक्षण कमान से सीधे वायु सेना प्रमुख नियुक्त किए गए
( He was appointed Chief of the Air Staff directly from Training Command )

C. उन्होंने उप वायु सेना प्रमुख (Vice Chief of the Air Staff) का पदभार ग्रहण किया, जिससे शीर्ष नेतृत्व में निरंतरता और परिचालन अनुभव सुनिश्चित हुआ
( He assumed charge as Vice Chief of the Air Staff, ensuring continuity and operational experience at the top leadership level )

D. उन्हें केवल प्रशासनिक भूमिका के लिए नियुक्त किया गया, बिना किसी परिचालन पृष्ठभूमि के
( He was appointed purely for an administrative role without operational background )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. उन्होंने उप वायु सेना प्रमुख (Vice Chief of the Air Staff) का पदभार ग्रहण किया, जिससे शीर्ष नेतृत्व में निरंतरता और परिचालन अनुभव सुनिश्चित हुआ
( He assumed charge as Vice Chief of the Air Staff, ensuring continuity and operational experience at the top leadership level )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor took charge as the Vice Chief of the Air Staff of the Indian Air Force on January 1, 2026. With nearly four decades of service, extensive command and staff experience, and prior roles as AOC-in-C of Training Command and South Western Air Command, his appointment strengthens strategic continuity and operational leadership at the apex of the IAF.

Hindi:
एयर मार्शल Nagesh Kapoor ने 1 जनवरी 2026 को Indian Air Force के उप वायु सेना प्रमुख (Vice Chief of the Air Staff) का पदभार ग्रहण किया। लगभग चार दशकों के अनुभव, प्रमुख कमान एवं स्टाफ पदों पर कार्य और प्रशिक्षण व दक्षिण–पश्चिमी वायु कमान के AOC-in-C के रूप में सेवा के कारण उनकी नियुक्ति से वायु सेना के शीर्ष नेतृत्व में परिचालन दक्षता और रणनीतिक निरंतरता सुनिश्चित होती है।

Q.20. न्यूयॉर्क सिटी के मेयर के रूप में ज़ोहरान ममदानी के शपथ ग्रहण का ऐतिहासिक महत्व क्या है?
Question: What is the historic significance of Zohran Mamdani’s swearing-in as Mayor of New York City?

A. वे न्यूयॉर्क सिटी के पहले अश्वेत (African-American) मेयर बने
( He became the first African-American Mayor of New York City )

B. वे न्यूयॉर्क सिटी के पहले मुस्लिम, दक्षिण एशियाई मूल के और अफ्रीका में जन्मे मेयर बने, साथ ही सबसे कम उम्र के मेयरों में से एक हैं
( He became the first Muslim, South Asian–origin, Africa-born Mayor of New York City and one of the youngest in generations )

C. वे सीधे अमेरिकी सीनेट से मेयर पद पर नियुक्त हुए
( He was appointed Mayor directly from the US Senate )

D. वे पहले मेयर हैं जिन्होंने केवल डिजिटल माध्यम से शपथ ली
( He is the first Mayor to take oath only through a digital ceremony )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. वे न्यूयॉर्क सिटी के पहले मुस्लिम, दक्षिण एशियाई मूल के और अफ्रीका में जन्मे मेयर बने, साथ ही सबसे कम उम्र के मेयरों में से एक हैं
( He became the first Muslim, South Asian–origin, Africa-born Mayor of New York City and one of the youngest in generations )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
Zohran Mamdani created history by becoming the first Muslim Mayor of New York City, the first of South Asian origin, and the first Africa-born Mayor, assuming office at just 34 years of age. His oath-taking at the historic City Hall subway station symbolised a new political era focused on inclusion and working-class representation.

Hindi:
Zohran Mamdani ने न्यूयॉर्क सिटी के मेयर के रूप में शपथ लेकर इतिहास रच दिया। वे न्यूयॉर्क सिटी के पहले मुस्लिम मेयर, दक्षिण एशियाई मूल के पहले मेयर और अफ्रीका में जन्मे पहले मेयर हैं। मात्र 34 वर्ष की आयु में पदभार ग्रहण कर वे कई पीढ़ियों में सबसे कम उम्र के मेयरों में शामिल हो गए। उनका ऐतिहासिक सिटी हॉल सबवे स्टेशन पर शपथ ग्रहण समावेशी राजनीति और नए युग के प्रतीक के रूप में देखा जा रहा है।

Q.21. जनवरी 2026 में केनरा बैंक के शीर्ष नेतृत्व से जुड़े हालिया घटनाक्रम का सही निष्कर्ष क्या है?
Question: What is the correct inference from the recent leadership developments at Canara Bank in January 2026?

A. केनरा बैंक में स्थायी MD & CEO की तत्काल नियुक्ति कर दी गई है
( A permanent MD & CEO has been immediately appointed at Canara Bank )

B. अतिरिक्त प्रभार की व्यवस्था एक वर्ष के लिए लागू की गई है
( The additional charge arrangement has been made for one year )

C. FSIB ने वर्तमान MD & CEO को ही पुनः नियुक्त करने की सिफारिश की है
( FSIB has recommended reappointment of the outgoing MD & CEO )

D. नियमित नियुक्ति होने तक तीन माह के लिए अंतरिम व्यवस्था की गई है, जबकि स्थायी MD & CEO के लिए सिफारिश पहले ही की जा चुकी है
( A temporary arrangement for three months has been made while a recommendation for a regular MD & CEO is already in place )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. नियमित नियुक्ति होने तक तीन माह के लिए अंतरिम व्यवस्था की गई है, जबकि स्थायी MD & CEO के लिए सिफारिश पहले ही की जा चुकी है
( A temporary arrangement for three months has been made while a recommendation for a regular MD & CEO is already in place )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
Canara Bank assigned Hardeep Singh Ahluwalia the additional charge of MD & CEO from January 1, 2026, following the superannuation of K. Satyanarayana Raju. As notified by the Department of Financial Services, this is a temporary arrangement for up to three months (or until a regular appointment). Meanwhile, the Financial Services Institutions Bureau has recommended Brajesh Kumar Singh as the next regular MD & CEO, indicating continuity through an interim-to-regular transition.

Hindi:
Canara Bank ने 1 जनवरी 2026 से Hardeep Singh Ahluwalia को MD & CEO का अतिरिक्त प्रभार सौंपा है, क्योंकि पूर्व MD & CEO के. सत्यनारायण राजू सेवानिवृत्त हो गए। Department of Financial Services की अधिसूचना के अनुसार यह अधिकतम तीन माह की अस्थायी व्यवस्था है। साथ ही Financial Services Institutions Bureau ने ब्रजेश कुमार सिंह को नियमित MD & CEO के रूप में सिफारिश कर दी है—जिससे यह स्पष्ट होता है कि यह एक अंतरिम से नियमित नियुक्ति तक की संक्रमणकालीन व्यवस्था है।

Q.22. दिल्ली सरकार द्वारा IIT कानपुर के सहयोग से विकसित किए जा रहे Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
Question: What is the primary objective of the Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System being developed by the Delhi Government in collaboration with IIT Kanpur?

A. सभी विभागीय शिकायत पोर्टलों को बंद कर एक नया पोर्टल शुरू करना
( To shut down all departmental grievance portals and launch a new one )

B. कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता के माध्यम से शिकायतों के निस्तारण में गति, पारदर्शिता और जवाबदेही बढ़ाना
( To enhance speed, transparency, and accountability in grievance redressal using artificial intelligence )

C. केवल आईटी विभाग की शिकायतों का विश्लेषण करना
( To analyse grievances related only to the IT Department )

D. शिकायतों के पंजीकरण को निजी एजेंसियों को सौंपना
( To outsource grievance registration to private agencies )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता के माध्यम से शिकायतों के निस्तारण में गति, पारदर्शिता और जवाबदेही बढ़ाना
( To enhance speed, transparency, and accountability in grievance redressal using artificial intelligence )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Delhi Government, in partnership with the Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur, is developing an AI- and ML-based Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System. The platform will integrate multiple grievance portals into a single unified dashboard, enabling data-driven monitoring, faster resolution, better inter-departmental coordination, and improved accountability—thereby strengthening public trust in governance.

Hindi:
दिल्ली सरकार ने Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur के सहयोग से AI एवं मशीन लर्निंग आधारित Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System विकसित करने का निर्णय लिया है। यह प्रणाली विभिन्न शिकायत पोर्टलों को एकीकृत डैशबोर्ड पर लाकर शिकायतों के विश्लेषण, त्वरित निस्तारण, बेहतर विभागीय समन्वय और जवाबदेही को मजबूत करेगी, जिससे शासन में पारदर्शिता और जनविश्वास बढ़ेगा।

Q. 23.National Test House (NTH) और National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) के बीच हुए हालिया MoU का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
Question: What is the primary objective of the recent MoU between National Test House (NTH) and the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)?

A. राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग परियोजनाओं में गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण, पारदर्शिता और सुरक्षा को सुदृढ़ करना
( To strengthen quality control, transparency, and safety in national highway projects )

B. निजी कंपनियों को राजमार्ग निर्माण का पूर्ण ठेका देना
( To fully outsource highway construction to private companies )

C. राजमार्ग निर्माण में लागत मानकों को समाप्त करना
( To eliminate cost norms in highway construction )

D. केवल प्रशासनिक स्वीकृतियों की प्रक्रिया को सरल बनाना
( To simplify only administrative approvals )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. राष्ट्रीय राजमार्ग परियोजनाओं में गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण, पारदर्शिता और सुरक्षा को सुदृढ़ करना
( To strengthen quality control, transparency, and safety in national highway projects )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
Under the MoU, National Test House will be empanelled as a recognised laboratory for National Highways Authority of India, enabling scientific and impartial testing of construction materials and works through its nationwide labs. The collaboration introduces time-bound testing, digital workflows, expert participation in technical committees, and capacity building—collectively enhancing quality assurance, transparency, and safety in highway construction.

Hindi:
इस MoU के तहत National Test House को National Highways Authority of India के लिए मान्यता प्राप्त प्रयोगशाला के रूप में सूचीबद्ध किया गया है। इससे देशभर की NTH प्रयोगशालाओं के माध्यम से निर्माण सामग्री और कार्यों की वैज्ञानिक, निष्पक्ष और समयबद्ध जांच, डिजिटल प्रक्रियाएँ, तकनीकी समितियों में विशेषज्ञ योगदान और क्षमता निर्माण संभव होगा—जो मिलकर राष्ट्रीय राजमार्गों में गुणवत्ता नियंत्रण, पारदर्शिता और सुरक्षा को मजबूत करते हैं।

Q.24. महिला टी20 अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में दीप्ति शर्मा के सर्वोच्च विकेट–टेकर बनने का मुख्य महत्व क्या है?
Question: What is the primary significance of Deepti Sharma becoming the highest wicket-taker in Women’s T20 International cricket?

A. यह उपलब्धि केवल एक द्विपक्षीय श्रृंखला तक सीमित है
( This achievement is limited only to a bilateral series )

B. यह दर्शाता है कि भारत की महिला टीम पहली बार विश्व रैंकिंग में शीर्ष पर पहुँची है
( It indicates that India’s women’s team has reached the top of world rankings for the first time )

C. यह अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में उनकी निरंतरता, दीर्घकालिक प्रदर्शन और दबाव में मैच जिताने की क्षमता को दर्शाता है
( It reflects her consistency, longevity, and match-winning ability under pressure at the international level )

D. यह उपलब्धि केवल बल्लेबाजी योगदान के कारण प्राप्त हुई है
( This milestone was achieved solely due to her batting contributions )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. यह अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में उनकी निरंतरता, दीर्घकालिक प्रदर्शन और दबाव में मैच जिताने की क्षमता को दर्शाता है
( It reflects her consistency, longevity, and match-winning ability under pressure at the international level )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
Deepti Sharma became the highest wicket-taker in Women’s T20 Internationals by claiming her 152nd wicket, surpassing Megan Schutt. This feat, along with her No. 1 ranking in ICC Women’s T20I bowling, highlights her sustained excellence, adaptability, and impact across nearly a decade at the top level—hallmarks of elite performance in international cricket.

Hindi:
दीप्ति शर्मा ने महिला टी20 अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में सर्वाधिक विकेट लेकर (152 विकेट) इतिहास रच दिया। यह उपलब्धि उनकी लगातार बेहतरीन गेंदबाजी, लंबे समय तक शीर्ष स्तर पर प्रदर्शन और दबाव की परिस्थितियों में मैच जिताने की क्षमता को दर्शाती है। साथ ही, ICC महिला टी20I गेंदबाजी रैंकिंग में नंबर एक स्थान उनकी वैश्विक श्रेष्ठता को और मजबूत करता है।

Q.1. शिमला के रिज मैदान पर आयोजित हिम MSME फेस्ट 2026 का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है?
प्रश्न: Shimla Ridge Ground पर आयोजित Him MSME Fest 2026 का प्रमुख उद्देश्य क्या है?

A. केवल बड़े उद्योग समूहों को प्रोत्साहन देना
( To promote only large industrial groups )

B. हिमाचल प्रदेश के स्थानीय उत्पादों, कारीगरों और MSMEs को राष्ट्रीय पहचान और बाज़ार उपलब्ध कराना
( To provide national recognition and market access to Himachal’s local products, artisans, and MSMEs )

C. राज्य में विदेशी निवेश को प्राथमिकता देना
( To prioritise foreign investment in the state )

D. केवल पर्यटन गतिविधियों को बढ़ावा देना
( To promote tourism activities alone )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. हिमाचल प्रदेश के स्थानीय उत्पादों, कारीगरों और MSMEs को राष्ट्रीय पहचान और बाज़ार उपलब्ध कराना
( To provide national recognition and market access to Himachal’s local products, artisans, and MSMEs )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
The Him MSME Fest 2026, inaugurated by the Chief Minister at the Ridge in Shimla, is aimed at branding “Him Brand” products and providing market linkage to small entrepreneurs, artisans, and MSMEs of Himachal Pradesh. The fest focuses on promoting traditional crafts, handlooms, food processing, startups, and innovation, thereby strengthening the state’s industrial ecosystem and supporting self-reliant growth.

Hindi:
हिम MSME फेस्ट 2026, जिसका उद्घाटन शिमला के रिज मैदान पर मुख्यमंत्री द्वारा किया गया, का मुख्य उद्देश्य “हिम ब्रांड” के तहत हिमाचल प्रदेश के स्थानीय उत्पादों, कारीगरों और सूक्ष्म, लघु एवं मध्यम उद्यमों (MSME) को पहचान दिलाना और उन्हें राष्ट्रीय स्तर का बाज़ार उपलब्ध कराना है। यह फेस्ट पारंपरिक हस्तशिल्प, हथकरघा, खाद्य प्रसंस्करण, स्टार्टअप और नवाचार को बढ़ावा देकर प्रदेश की औद्योगिक अर्थव्यवस्था को मजबूत करता है।

Q.2. शिमला में आयोजित Him MSME Fest 2026 के दौरान हैंडमेड शॉल डिस्प्ले के गिनीज वर्ल्ड रिकॉर्ड से जुड़ी उपलब्धि का मुख्य महत्व क्या है?
प्रश्न: Shimla में Him MSME Fest 2026 के दौरान बनाए गए Handmade Shawl Display Guinness World Record का प्रमुख महत्व क्या है?

A. यह केवल पर्यटन प्रचार से संबंधित एक सांस्कृतिक कार्यक्रम था
( It was merely a cultural programme for tourism promotion )

B. इसका उद्देश्य केवल राज्य सरकार की उपलब्धियों का प्रदर्शन करना था
( It was aimed only at showcasing government achievements )

C. यह रिकॉर्ड केवल अंतरराष्ट्रीय फैशन उद्योग को आकर्षित करने के लिए बनाया गया
( It was created solely to attract the international fashion industry )

D. यह हिमाचल प्रदेश के पारंपरिक हथकरघा, कारीगरों और “हिम ब्रांड” को वैश्विक पहचान दिलाने का माध्यम बना
( It served as a platform to give global recognition to Himachal’s traditional handloom, artisans, and the “Him Brand” )

Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. यह हिमाचल प्रदेश के पारंपरिक हथकरघा, कारीगरों और “हिम ब्रांड” को वैश्विक पहचान दिलाने का माध्यम बना
( It served as a platform to give global recognition to Himachal’s traditional handloom, artisans, and the “Him Brand” )

Explanation / व्याख्या:

English:
During Him MSME Fest 2026 at Shimla Ridge, the handmade shawl display entered the Guinness World Records, highlighting Himachal Pradesh’s rich handloom heritage. This achievement was not merely symbolic; it aimed to promote local artisans, traditional weaving practices, and the “Him Brand” at the global level, thereby strengthening market access and cultural identity—an important focus area for HPAS exams.

Hindi:
शिमला के रिज मैदान पर आयोजित Him MSME Fest 2026 के दौरान हस्तनिर्मित शॉल प्रदर्शन ने गिनीज वर्ल्ड रिकॉर्ड में स्थान प्राप्त किया। यह उपलब्धि केवल प्रतीकात्मक नहीं थी, बल्कि इसका उद्देश्य हिमाचल प्रदेश की हथकरघा परंपरा, स्थानीय कारीगरों और “हिम ब्रांड” को वैश्विक स्तर पर पहचान दिलाना था। यह पहल प्रदेश की सांस्कृतिक पहचान और MSME आधारित अर्थव्यवस्था को मजबूत करने की दिशा में एक महत्वपूर्ण कदम है।