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Solved HP TET Medical Paper June 2026

HPTET Medical Question Paper Held On 13 June 2026:-You can find previous year question papers for the HPTET Medical examination on the official website of the HPBOSE or from various other sources. Here’s how you can access these papers:

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Section – I: SPECIAL EDUCATION/PSYCHOLOGY

1.In Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which stage is characterized by the ability to think logically about abstract concepts?
(A) Sensorimotor Stage
(B) Pre-operational Stage
(C) Concrete Operational Stage
(D) Formal Operational Stage
Answer: (D)

2.According to Erikson, the primary task during adolescence is:
(A) Developing trust
(B) Gaining autonomy
(C) Developing identity
(D) Building intimacy
Answer: (C)

3.Kohlberg’s theory of moral development is most concerned with:
(A) Social conformity
(B) Emotional regulation
(C) Cognitive reasoning
(D) Language acquisition
Answer: (C)

4.The “strange situation” experiment by Mary Ainsworth is used to assess:
(A) Cognitive development
(B) Language skills
(C) Attachment styles
(D) Moral reasoning
Answer: (C)

5.In which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development does the conflict of “initiative vs. guilt” occur?
(A) Infancy
(B) Early childhood
(C) Adolescence
(D) Middle adulthood
Answer: (B)

6.What is a “critical period” in developmental psychology?
(A) A time when a child is most sensitive to environmental influences
(B) A time when a child is most rebellious
(C) A stage of cognitive decline
(D) A period of rapid physical growth
Answer: (A)

7.The concept of “imprinting” is most closely associated with which developmental psychologist?
(A) John Bowlby
(B) Konrad Lorenz
(C) Harry Harlow
(D) Mary Ainsworth
Answer: (B)

8.What is the primary focus of the sensorimotor stage in Piaget’s theory?
(A) Developing logical reasoning
(B) Understanding object permanence
(C) Learning language
(D) Moral reasoning
Answer: (B)

9.Which of the following is an example of fine motor skills?
(A) Running
(B) Jumping
(C) Drawing
(D) Climbing
Answer: (C)

10.According to Kohlberg, at which level do individuals base their moral decisions on social rules and laws?
(A) Pre-conventional
(B) Conventional
(C) Post-conventional
(D) Autonomous
Answer: (B)

11.The ability to think about things that are not physically present is known as:
(A) Concrete thinking
(B) Abstract thinking
(C) Operational thinking
(D) Logical thinking
Answer: (B)

12.Which of the following is the most effective method for enhancing student motivation in the classroom?
(A) Punishment
(B) Reward
(C) Competition
(D) Intrinsic motivation
Answer: (D)

13.What is the primary focus of formative assessment in the teaching-learning process?
(A) To measure final learning outcomes
(B) To provide ongoing feedback to students
(C) To assign grades
(D) To evaluate teacher performance
Answer: (B)

14.Which teaching strategy is most aligned with constructivist learning theory? @himexam
(A) Lecture method
(B) Discovery learning
(C) Rote learning
(D) Direct instruction
Answer: (B)

!5.Which psychologist is best known for the theory of Multiple Intelligence?
(A) Jean Piaget
(B) Lev Vygotsky
(C) Howard Gardner
(D) B.F. Skinner
Answer: (C)

!6.At what stage does a child begin to develop a sense of independence?
(A) Infancy
(B) Toddlerhood
(C) Early childhood
(D) Adolescence
Answer: (B)

17.Which theory is associated with cognitive development in children?
(A) Freud’s Psychoanalytic Theory
(B) Erikson’s Psychosocial Development
(C) Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory
(D) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
Answer: (C)

18.Which of the following is NOT a stage in Erikson’s theory of Psychosocial Development?
(A) Trust vs. Mistrust
(B) Autonomy vs. Shame
(C) Initiative vs. Guilt
(D) Formal Operations vs. Concrete Operations
Answer: (D)

19.During which age range does the “pre-operational stage” in Piaget’s theory occur?
(A) Birth to 2 years
(B) 2 to 7 years
(C) 7 to 11 years
(D) 11 years and older
Answer: (B)

20.The concept of “learning by doing” is best associated with:
(A) Rote memorization
(B) Passive learning
(C) Experiential learning
(D) Lecture-based teaching
Answer: (C)

21.What is the primary goal of early childhood education according to child-centered approaches?
(A) Academic achievement
(B) Socialization
(C) Physical development
(D) Nurturing creativity and self-expression
Answer: (D)

22.According to Vygotsky, what is the term used to describe the difference between what a child can do alone and what they can do with help?
(A) Scaffolding
(B) Zone of Proximal Development
(C) Cognitive Dissonance
(D) Social Learning
Answer: (B)

23.Which concept explains why young children often believe that everyone sees the world exactly as they do?
(A) Egocentrism
(B) Conservation
(C) Centration
(D) Object Permanence
Answer: (A)

24.Which parenting style is characterized by high responsiveness and high demands?
(A) Authoritarian
(B) Permissive
(C) Authoritative
(D) Neglectful
Answer: (C)

25.In which stage of Kohlberg’s moral development theory do children make decisions based on the approval of others?
(A) Pre-conventional
(B) Conventional
(C) Post-conventional
(D) Autonomous
Answer: (B)

26.What is the term for a child’s ability to understand that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen?
(A) Object Permanence
(B) Conservation
(C) Reversibility
(D) Schema
Answer: (A)

27.Which psychologist is most closely associated with the social learning theory?
(A) Jean Piaget
(B) Sigmund Freud
(C) Albert Bandura
(D) B.F. Skinner
Answer: (C)

28.What is the critical period for language development according to most child psychologists?
(A) Birth to 2 years
(B) 2 to 5 years
(C) 5 to 10 years
(D) 10 to 15 years
Answer: (B)

29.Developmental Psychology primarily focuses on which of the following aspects?
(A) Personality
(B) Cognitive growth
(C) Social interactions
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

30.Who is known as the father of developmental psychology?
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) Jean Piaget
(C) Erik Erikson
(D) B.F. Skinner
Answer: (B)

Section – II: GENERAL AWARENESS

31.Which country recently launched the “Artemis-II” moon mission?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) USA
(D) Japan
Answer: (C)

32.Who become the Nawab of Bengal after the battle of Plassey?
(A) Mir Qasim
(B) Siraj-ud-Daulah
(C) Mir Jafer
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

33.In which Ocean does the Gulf Stream flow?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Southern ocean
Answer: (C)

34.Which is the traditional classical dance of Tamil Nadu?
(A) Bharatanatyam
(B) Odissi
(C) Kuchipudi
(D) Manipuri
Answer: (A)

35.In Puri, Odisha, Jagannath deity is considered a form of which deity?
(A) Shri Krishna
(B) Shri Ram
(C) Lord Vishnu
(D) Lord Shiva
Answer: (C)

36.By which name is the collection of the verses of Saint Kabir known?
(A) Bijak
(B) Dharohar
(C) Praneta
(D) Upasak
Answer: (A)

37.Who was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Sacchidananda Sinha
(D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (B)

38.Which country hosted the 2026 Winter Olympics?
(A) China
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) Norway
Answer: (B)

39.How many Lok Sabha elections have been held in India so far?
(A) 16
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
Answer: (C)

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40.Which of the following minerals is found in Monazite sand?
(A) Uranium
(B) Mica
(C) Titanium
(D) Thorium
Answer: (D)

41.India is the largest producer and consumer of which of the following crops in the world?
(A) Pulses
(B) Rice
(C) Wheat
(D) Oil Seeds
Answer: (A)

42.When did the United Nations General Assembly declare 21st June as ‘International Yoga Day”?
(A) 21 June 2014
(B) 11 December 2014
(C) 10 September 2014
(D) 25 January 2014
Answer: (B)

43.Who has became the Prime Minister of Nepal after election held in February-March 2026?
(A) Balender Shah
(B) K. P. Sharma Oli
(C) Girija Prasad
(D) Sher Bahadur Deuba
Answer: (A)

44.In the 2025 Human Development Index Report, what was India’s rank for the year 2023?
(A) 128th
(B) 129th
(C) 130th
(D) 131st
Answer: (C)

45.Which commodity or substance is traded the most through the Strait of Hormuz? #himexam
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Food Items
(C) Manufactured Goods
(D) Edible Oil
Answer: (A)

46.Which of the following districts does not share its boundary with Kullu?
(A) Mandi
(B) Shimla
(C) Chamba
(D) Kinnaur
Answer: (B)

47.How many districts of Himachal Pradesh share international border?
(A) 03
(B) 04
(C) 01
(D) 02
Answer: (D)

48,What was the increase in per capita income in Himachal Pradesh during the Financial year 2025-26?
(A) 9.8%
(B) 9.6%
(C) 9.9%
(D) 9.7%
Answer: (A)

49.What percentage of land area has the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh targeted to bring under forest cover by the year 2030 in the budget speech 2026?
(A) 35%
(B) 32%
(C) 29.5%
(D) 32.5%
Answer: (B)

50.When was the Himachal Pradesh High Court established?
(A) 15 April 1948
(B) 01 November 1966
(C) 15 May 1957
(D) 25 January 1971
Answer: (D)

51.Before 1955 the High Court of Punjab was located in which historic building in Shimla?
(A) Rothney Castle
(B) Kennedy House
(C) Peterhoff
(D) Jutogh Cantt
Answer: (C)

52.In accordance with 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, as the new Panchayati Raj Act implemented in Himachal Pradesh?
(A) 1976
(B) 1988
(C) 1968
(D) 1994
Answer: (D)

53.Which district of Himachal Pradesh has highest sex ratio (1095/1000) according to 2011 Census?
(A) Hamirpur
(B) Una
(C) Bilaspur
(D) Kangra
Answer: (A)

54.When were the members of the Rajya Sabha elected for the first time in Himachal Pradesh?
(A) 1948
(B) 1952
(C) 1950
(D) 1971
Answer: (B)

55.What is the position of Himachal Pradesh in the sequence of States in India?
(A) 16th
(B) 17th
(C) 18th
(D) 19th
Answer: (C)

56.Where is the world’s highest cricket ground located in Solan district of Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Arki
(B) Kandaghat
(C) Sabathu
(D) Chail
Answer: (D)

57.Which state was declared India’s first fully paperless judiciary state in May 2026?
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Sikkim
Answer: (D)

58.Who is at present the Prime Minister of Canada?
(A) Justin Trudeau
(B) Mark Carney
(C) Pierre Poilievre
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

59.When was the National Service Scheme (N.S.S.) formed?
(A) 1962
(B) 1966
(C) 1969
(D) 1971
Answer: (C)

60.When did Delhi become the capital of British India?
(A) 1889
(B) 1894
(C) 1907
(D) 1911
Answer: (D)

Section – III: BIOLOGY

61. Which of the following are not considered as the part of endomembrane system?

(i) Mitochondria

(ii) Endoplasmic Reticulum

(iii) Chloroplast

(iv) Golgi complex

(v) Peroxisomes

(A) Only (i) and (iv)

(B) Only (i), (iv) and (v)

(D) Only (i), (iii) and (v)

**Answer: (D)**

62. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S-phase?

(A) 32

(B) 8

(D) 4

**Answer: (B)**

63. Spindle fibres are attached to kinetochores of chromosomes during:

(A) Prophase

(B) Metaphase

(D) Telophase

**Answer: (B)**

64. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for the fixation of every molecule of CO2 in the Calvin cycle?

(A) 2 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

(B) 2 molecules of ATP and 3 molecules of NADPH

(D) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

**Answer: (D)**

65. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory pathway through:

(A) Acetyl-CoA

(B) $\alpha$ – Ketoglutaric acid

(D) Pyruvic Acid

**Answer: (A)**

66. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of Tripalmitin is:

(A) 0.09

(B) 0.9

(D) 0.07

**Answer: (C)**

67. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

(A) 1 Meiotic and 3 Mitotic

(B) No Meiotic and 2 Mitotic

(D) 1 Meiotic and 2 Mitotic

**Answer: (A)**

68. Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

(A) Beer

(B) Rum

(D) Brandy

**Answer: (A)**

69. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally administered which of the following immediately?

(A) Penicillin

(B) Streptokinase

(D) Statins

**Answer: (B)**

70. Transposons can be used during which one of the following?

(A) Polymerase Chain Reaction

(B) Gene silencing

(D) Gene sequencing

**Answer: (B)**

71. The Bt-toxin in genetically engineered Bt – Cotton kills the pests by:

(A) Creating pores in the midgut

(B) Damaging the respiratory pathway

(D) Altering the pH of body fluids

**Answer: (A)**

72. The complex II of Mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as:

(A) Cytochrome c oxidase

(B) NADH dehydrogenase

(D) Succinate dehydrogenase

**Answer: (D)**

73. In the equation GPP-R = NPP, R represents: @himexam

(A) Respiratory loss

(B) Reproductive allocation

(D) Respiratory quotient

**Answer: (A)**

74. Histones are enriched with:

(A) Phenyl alanine and leucine

(B) Phenylalanine and arginine

(D) Leucine and Lysine

**Answer: (C)**

75. What is the function of tassels in Corn Cob?

(A) To disperse pollen grains

(B) To protect seeds

(D) To attract insects

**Answer: (C)**

76. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:

(A) Fructose and Calcium

(B) Glucose and Calcium

(D) Ribose and Potassium

**Answer: (A)**

77. Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

(A) Uterine fundus

(B) Isthmus

(D) Ampulla

**Answer: (A)**

78. Several hormones like hCG, HPL, estrogen and progesterone are produced by:

(A) Ovary

(B) Placenta

(D) Pituitary gland

**Answer: (B)**

79. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable?

(A) Chlamydiasis

(B) Gonorrhoea

(D) Genital herpes

**Answer: (D)**

80. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intrauterine Device (IUD)?

(A) Multiload 375

(B) LNG 20

(D) Vault

**Answer: (B)**

81. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution:

(A) Homology, Convergent

(B) Analogy, Divergent

(D) Homology, Divergent

**Answer: (C)**

82. Which Scientist disapproved Embryological evidence in support of evolution?

(A) Karl Ernst Van Baer

(B) Alfred Wallace

(D) Oparin

**Answer: (A)**

83. Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

(A) Genetic recombination

(B) Genetic drift

(D) Constant gene pool

**Answer: (D)**

84. The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the human body is:

(A) Trophozoites

(B) Sporozoites

(D) Male gametocytes

**Answer: (B)**

85. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?

(A) Basophils

(B) Eosinophils

(D) B-Lymphocytes

**Answer: (C)**

86. Diacetyl morphine is also called as:

(A) Amphetamine

(B) Barbiturate

(D) Smack

**Answer: (D)**

87. All living members of the class cyclostomata are:

(A) Symbiotic

(B) Ectoparasites

(D) Endoparasites

**Answer: (B)**

88. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

(A) Ornithorhynchus

(B) Neophron

(D) Macropus

**Answer: (B)**

89. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by:

(A) Ctenophora

(B) Platyhelminthes

(D) Annelida

**Answer: (B)**

90. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

(A) Amino acids

(B) Phospholipids

(D) Carbohydrates

**Answer: (B)**

91. Identify the basic amino acids from the following:

(A) Tyrosine

(B) Glutamic Acid

(D) Valine

**Answer: (C)**

92. Inulin is a polymer of:

(A) Fructose

(B) Galactose

(D) Glucose

**Answer: (A)**

93. Cofactor of enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

(A) Zinc

(B) Niacin

(D) Haem

**Answer: (A)**

94. Match List-I with List-II: (w.r.t. WBCs and their % in blood)

List-I: a) Eosinophils, b) Lymphocytes, c) Neutrophils, d) Monocytes

List-II: (i) 6-8%, (ii) 2-3%, (iii) 20-25%, (iv) 60-65%

(A) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)

(B) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)

(D) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

**Answer: (D)**

95. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

(A) Repolarisation of auricles

(B) Depolarisation of auricles

(D) Repolarisation of ventricles

**Answer: (C)**

96. An athlete’s tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume is 500 ml and 1000ml respectively. What will be his expiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200ml?

(A) 2700 ml

(B) 1500 ml

(D) 2200 ml

**Answer: (B)**

97. The partial pressure (in mmHg) of oxygen ($O_2$) and carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) in Alveoli are:

(A) $PO_2=159$ and $PCO_2=0.3$

(B) $PO_2=104$ and $PCO_2=40$

(D) $PO_2=95$ and $PCO_2=40$

**Answer: (B)**

98. Under normal physiological conditions, in human beings, every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver………. of $O_2$ to the tissues:

(A) 2 ml

(B) 5 ml

(D) 10 ml

**Answer: (B)**

99. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

(A) Ornithorhynchus

(B) Salamandra

(D) Pavo

**Answer: (D)**

100. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates:

(A) Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin

(B) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

(D) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

**Answer: (A)**

101. During muscle contraction in humans:

(A) Sarcomere does not shorten

(B) ‘A’ band remains same

(D) Actin filaments shorten

**Answer: (B)**

102. Chronic autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles, is called as:

(A) Gout

(B) Arthritis

(D) Myasthenia gravis

**Answer: (D)**

103. The parts of the brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are:

(A) Brain stem and epithalamus

(B) Corpus callosum and thalamus

(D) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus

**Answer: (C)**

104. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

(A) Pre-synaptic membrane

(B) Tips of axon

(D) Membranes of synaptic vesicles

**Answer: (C)**

105. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as sleep-wake cycle is regulated by which hormone?

(A) Calcitonin

(B) Prolactin

(D) Melatonin

**Answer: (D)**

106. MSH is secreted by:

(A) Anterior lobe of pituitary

(B) Middle lobe of pituitary

(D) Endostyle

**Answer: (B)**

107. Which one of the following is not a steroid hormone?

(A) Cortisol

(B) Testosterone

(D) Glucagon

**Answer: (D)**

108. In frogs, the renal portal system is venous connection that joins:

(A) Kidney and intestine

(B) Kidney & Lower part of body

(D) Liver and Kidney

**Answer: (B)**

109. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

(A) Second digit of fore limb

(B) First digit of fore limb

(D) First digit of hind limb

**Answer: (B)**

110. Among “The Evil Quartet” which one is considered the most significant cause driving the extinction of species?

(A) Alien species invasion

(B) Co-extinction

(D) Over exploitation for economic gain

**Answer: (C)**

111. Alexander von Humboldt described for the first time:

(A) Laws of limiting factor

(B) Species-area Relationship

(D) Ecological Diversity

**Answer: (B)**

112. Viroids differ from viruses in having:

(A) DNA molecules without protein coat

(B) RNA molecules with protein coat

(D) DNA molecules with protein coat

**Answer: (C)**

113. Hydrocolloid Carrageenan is obtained from:

(A) Chlorophyceae and phaeophyceae

(B) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

(D) Phaeophyceae only

**Answer: (C)**

114. Which one of the following plant shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous condition?

(A) Pisum sativum

(B) Calchicum autumnale

(D) Solanum nigrum

**Answer: (A)**

115. The ovary is half-inferior in:

(A) Brinjal

(B) Mustard

(D) Plum

**Answer: (D)**

116. Ground tissue includes:

(A) All tissues external to endodermis

(B) All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles

(D) All tissues internal to endodermis

**Answer: (B)**

117. Bulliform cells are responsible for:

(A) Inward curling of leaves in monocots

(B) Protecting the plant from salts stress

(D) Providing large spaces for storage of sugars

**Answer: (A)**

118. Stomata in grass leaf are:

(A) Dumb-bell shaped

(B) Kidney shaped

(D) Barrel shaped

**Answer: (A)**

119. A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

(A) Cristae

(B) Endoplasmic reticulum

(D) Chromatophores

**Answer: (C)**

120. The structure that helps some bacteria to attach to rocks and also to host tissues are:

(A) Mesosomes

(B) Holdfast

(D) Fimbriae

**Answer: (D)**

121.Which of the following substance can readily sublime?
(A) NaCl
(B) NH4Cl
(C) KCl
(D) CaCl2
Answer: (B)

122.The number of unpaired electrons in Fe3+ (Z=26) are:
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (C)

123.The purest form of coal is:
(A) Lignite
(B) Bituminous
(C) Anthracite
(D) Peat
Answer: (C)

124.Which of the following has maximum paramagnetism character?
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(C) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(D) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
Answer: (C)

125.Find the EMF of following cell: Zn(s)|Zn2+(1M)||Pb2+(1M)|Pb(s)
(Given: Eo Pb2+|Pb = -0.126V, Eo Zn2+|Zn = -0.76V)
(A) 0.886 V
(B) 0.634 V
(C) -0.634 V
(D) -0.886 V
Answer: (B)

126.Salicylaldehyde + NaOH + CO2 -> x; x is:
(A) CHO (with OH)
(B) COOH (with OH)
(C) OCH3 (with OH)
(D) COCH3 (with OH)
Answer: (B)

127.Which of the following does not form an acidic salt?
(A) H3PO4
(B) H2CO3
(C) HCl
(D) H2SO4
Answer: (C)

128.Which of the following has the highest kinetic energy?
(A) Particle of ice at 0°C
(B) Particle of H2O at 0°C
(C) Particle of steam at 100°C
(D) Particle of H2O at 100°C
Answer: (C)

129.Which of the following has maximum mass?
(A) 1 Mole of NH3
(B) 0.5 Mole of C2H6
(C) 0.1 Mole of CO2
(D) 0.5 Mole of H2O
Answer: (A)

130.Quartz is used as piezoelectric substance as it contains:
(A) Pb
(B) Si
(C) Ti
(D) Sn
Answer: (B)

131.Which of the following is most reactive towards water?
(A) Li
(B) K
(C) Rb
(D) Na
Answer: (C)

132.Which one of the following Ligands forms a chelate?
(A) CH3COO-
(B) C2O4 2-
(C) CN-
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

133.Conjugate Acid of NH3 is:
(A) NH4+
(B) NH2-
(C) NH4OH
(D) NH2-
Answer: (A)

134.The oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O7 2- is:
(A) -2
(B) +7
(C) +6
(D) +2
Answer: (C)

135.Which of the following polymer is prepared by condensation method?
(A) Teflon
(B) Rubber
(C) Styrene
(D) Nylon-66
Answer: (D)

136.Which of the following is a neutral oxide?
(A) CO
(B) SnO2
(C) ZnO
(D) SiO2
Answer: (A)

137.In Lassaigne’s test for Nitrogen in organic compound, the prussian blue color compound is due to:
(A) Na3[Fe(CN)6]
(B) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(C) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

138.The chemical formula of sodium nitroprusside is:
(A) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO3]
(B) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
(C) Na2[Fe(CN)5Cl]
(D) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
Answer: (B)

139.Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with:
(A) HCHO
(B) CH3CHO
(C) C6H5CHO
(D) CH3COCH3
Answer: (A)

140.What is Lucas’s Reagent?
(A) Conc HCl + Conc HNO3
(B) Conc HCl + Anhydrous ZnCl2
(C) Conc HNO3 + Anhydrous ZnCl2
(D) Conc H2SO4 + Anhydrous ZnCl2
Answer: (B)

141.Which of the following is Bacteriostatic antibiotic?
(A) Penicillin
(B) Erythromycin
(C) Ofloxacin
(D) Bithional
Answer: (B)

142.Which of the following is sweetest natural sugar?
(A) Lactose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Sucrose
Answer: (C)

143.Which of the following is acidic Hydroxide?
(A) Be(OH)2
(B) Mg(OH)2
(C) B(OH)3
(D) Al(OH)3
Answer: (C)

144.The element of group-13 that is found in liquid state in summer is:
(A) Al
(B) B
(C) Ga
(D) In
Answer: (C)

145.Which of the following species initiate the nitration of Benzene using mixture of Conc H2SO4 + Conc HNO3?
(A) NO2
(B) NO+
(C) NO2+
(D) NO2-
Answer: (C)

146.The compound that gives both Iodoform and Fehling solution test is:
(A) CH3CH2OH
(B) CH3CHO
(C) CH3COCH3
(D) CH3COOH
Answer: (B)

147.Which of the following gives silver mirror test?
(A) CH3CH2OH
(B) CH3CHO
(C) CH3COCH3
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

148.Which enzyme converts glucose into ethanol?
(A) Zymase
(B) Maltose
(C) Pepsin
(D) Invertase
Answer: (A)

149.Which of the following does not show Tyndall effect?
(A) Starch Solution
(B) Milk
(C) Soap Solution
(D) Sugar Solution
Answer: (D)

150.The enthalpy of combustion of CH4, C and H2 at 298 K are -890.3 kJ mol-1, -393.5 kJ mol-1 and -285.8 kJ mol-1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH4 (g) will be:
(A) -74.8 kJ mol-1
(B) -52.27 kJ mol-1
(C) +74.8 kJ mol-1
(D) +52.27 kJ mol-1
Answer: (A)

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