Daily Current Affairs 01 January 2026 In Hindi/English:-Hello Readers,We are here for you to provide the important Daily Current Affairs 01 January 2026, which have unique updates of Latest Current Affairs 2026 events from all newspapers such as Amar Ujala,Punjab Kesari,The Tribune and all Govt websites.Our Daily Current Affairs 01 January 2026 will help you to get more marks in HPPSC, HPRCA,HP Police ,HP Naib Tehsildar,HP Patwari and all Other HP State Govt Exams.

Monthly Current Affairs :- CLICK HERE

Daily Current Affairs 01 January 2026 Overview:-

 Q.1 The 4th India AI Impact Summit, to be hosted by India in February 2026, is best characterised by which of the following features?

फरवरी 2026 में भारत द्वारा आयोजित होने वाले चौथे इंडिया AI इम्पैक्ट समिट की प्रमुख विशेषता क्या है?

A. Focus on military use of AI and exclusion of foreign countries
AI के सैन्य उपयोग पर ध्यान और विदेशी देशों को बाहर रखना

B. People–Planet–Progress framework with outreach to China for AI cooperation
People–Planet–Progress ढांचा तथा AI सहयोग हेतु चीन को आमंत्रण

C. Regulation of AI only through binding international treaties
केवल बाध्यकारी अंतरराष्ट्रीय संधियों के माध्यम से AI का नियमन

D. Replacement of multilateral AI forums with national conferences
बहुपक्षीय AI मंचों को राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलनों से बदलना

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. People–Planet–Progress framework with outreach to China for AI cooperation
People–Planet–Progress ढांचा तथा AI सहयोग हेतु चीन को आमंत्रण

Explanation / व्याख्या

The 4th India AI Impact Summit, scheduled in New Delhi from 15–20 February 2026, focuses on promoting inclusive, responsible, and resilient Artificial Intelligence. The summit is guided by the People–Planet–Progress framework, which emphasises human-centric AI (People), environmental sustainability (Planet), and inclusive economic growth (Progress). A significant diplomatic aspect of the summit is India’s invitation to China, indicating a cautious improvement in bilateral relations and a shared intent to cooperate in AI capacity building and emerging technologies. This reflects India’s broader strategy of shaping ethical AI governance and global technology collaboration.

15–20 फरवरी 2026 को नई दिल्ली में आयोजित होने वाला चौथा इंडिया AI इम्पैक्ट समिट समावेशी, जिम्मेदार और सुदृढ़ कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता (AI) को बढ़ावा देने पर केंद्रित है। यह समिट People–Planet–Progress ढांचे पर आधारित है, जिसमें मानव–केंद्रित AI (People), पर्यावरण संरक्षण (Planet) और समावेशी आर्थिक विकास (Progress) पर बल दिया गया है। समिट का एक महत्वपूर्ण कूटनीतिक पक्ष चीन को दिया गया औपचारिक निमंत्रण है, जो भारत–चीन संबंधों में धीरे–धीरे सुधार और AI क्षमता निर्माण व उभरती तकनीकों में सहयोग की साझा रुचि को दर्शाता है। यह भारत की नैतिक AI शासन व्यवस्था और वैश्विक तकनीकी सहयोग को आगे बढ़ाने की रणनीति को भी प्रतिबिंबित करता है।

Q.2. With reference to the Government of India’s plan to borrow ₹3.84 lakh crore through Treasury Bills (T-Bills) in Q4, consider the following statements:

भारत सरकार की Q4 में ट्रेज़री बिल (T-Bills) के माध्यम से ₹3.84 लाख करोड़ उधारी योजना के संदर्भ में निम्न कथनों पर विचार करें:

1. Treasury Bills are zero-coupon securities and are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value on maturity.
   ट्रेज़री बिल शून्य–कूपन प्रतिभूतियाँ हैं, जिन्हें छूट पर जारी किया जाता है और परिपक्वता पर अंकित मूल्य पर भुनाया जाता है।
2. In India, Treasury Bills are issued only for a tenure of 364 days.
   भारत में ट्रेज़री बिल केवल 364 दिनों की अवधि के लिए ही जारी किए जाते हैं।
3. The Q4 Treasury Bill borrowing programme has been finalised in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
   Q4 की ट्रेज़री बिल उधारी योजना भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) से परामर्श के बाद अंतिम रूप दी गई है।

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन–सा/से सही है/हैं?

A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2
B. 1 and 3 only / केवल 1 और 3
C. 2 and 3 only / केवल 2 और 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 / 1, 2 और 3

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. 1 and 3 only / केवल 1 और 3

Explanation / व्याख्या

• Statement 1 – Correct / कथन 1 सही:
  Treasury Bills are zero-coupon money market instruments. They do not pay interest and are issued at a discount, with the difference earned as return at maturity.
  ट्रेज़री बिल शून्य–कूपन मुद्रा बाज़ार साधन हैं। इनमें ब्याज नहीं मिलता और छूट पर जारी होकर परिपक्वता पर अंकित मूल्य मिलता है।
• Statement 2 – Incorrect / कथन 2 गलत:
  In India, Treasury Bills are issued for 91 days, 182 days and 364 days, not only for 364 days.
  भारत में ट्रेज़री बिल 91 दिन, 182 दिन और 364 दिन की अवधि के लिए जारी किए जाते हैं।
• Statement 3 – Correct / कथन 3 सही:
  The Government finalised the Q4 T-Bill borrowing programme in consultation with RBI, which manages government borrowings.
  Q4 की ट्रेज़री बिल उधारी योजना RBI से परामर्श के बाद तय की गई है।

Q.3. With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s assessment of the banking sector in FY25, consider the following statements:

भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) द्वारा FY25 में बैंकिंग क्षेत्र के आकलन के संदर्भ में निम्न कथनों पर विचार करें:

1. The Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) ratio of commercial banks declined to a multi-decadal low of about 2.2% by March 2025.
   वाणिज्यिक बैंकों का सकल गैर–निष्पादित परिसंपत्ति (GNPA) अनुपात मार्च 2025 तक घटकर लगभग 2.2% के बहु–दशकीय न्यूनतम स्तर पर आ गया।
2. The combined net profit of Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) increased in FY25, but the growth rate was lower than that recorded in FY24.
   अनुसूचित वाणिज्यिक बैंकों (SCBs) का संयुक्त शुद्ध लाभ FY25 में बढ़ा, किंतु इसकी वृद्धि दर FY24 की तुलना में कम रही।
3. The Capital-to-Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of banks fell below the regulatory minimum during FY25.
   FY25 के दौरान बैंकों का पूंजी–जोखिम भारित परिसंपत्ति अनुपात (CRAR) नियामकीय न्यूनतम स्तर से नीचे चला गया।

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन–सा/से सही है/हैं?

A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2
B. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2
C. 2 and 3 only / केवल 2 और 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 / 1, 2 और 3

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2

Explanation / व्याख्या

• Statement 1 – Correct / कथन 1 सही:
  RBI reported that the GNPA ratio declined to a multi-decadal low of 2.2% in March 2025, further improving to 2.1% by September 2025, reflecting strong asset quality.
  RBI के अनुसार GNPA अनुपात मार्च 2025 में घटकर 2.2% के बहु–दशकीय न्यूनतम स्तर पर आ गया, जो परिसंपत्ति गुणवत्ता में सुधार दर्शाता है।
• Statement 2 – Correct / कथन 2 सही:
  The combined net profit of SCBs rose by 14.8% to ₹4.01 lakh crore in FY25, but this growth was slower than the 32.8% growth in FY24.
  FY25 में SCBs का संयुक्त शुद्ध लाभ 14.8% बढ़कर ₹4.01 लाख करोड़ हुआ, परंतु यह वृद्धि FY24 की तुलना में कम रही।
• Statement 3 – Incorrect / कथन 3 गलत:
  The CRAR remained well above regulatory requirements, at 17.4% in March 2025 and 17.2% in September 2025.
  CRAR नियामकीय न्यूनतम से काफी ऊपर रहा (मार्च 2025 में 17.4%)।

Q.4. The 5th National Conference of Chief Secretaries, addressed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in December 2025, primarily focused on which of the following national priorities?

दिसंबर 2025 में प्रधानमंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी द्वारा संबोधित पाँचवें राष्ट्रीय मुख्य सचिव सम्मेलन का मुख्य फोकस क्या था?

A. Defence manufacturing and border infrastructure
रक्षा विनिर्माण और सीमा अवसंरचना

B. Human Capital development for achieving Viksit Bharat through cooperative federalism
सहकारी संघवाद के माध्यम से विकसित भारत हेतु मानव पूंजी का विकास

C. Climate change mitigation through international partnerships
अंतरराष्ट्रीय साझेदारियों के माध्यम से जलवायु परिवर्तन शमन

D. Judicial and police reforms at the State level
राज्य स्तर पर न्यायिक और पुलिस सुधार

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. Human Capital development for achieving Viksit Bharat through cooperative federalism
सहकारी संघवाद के माध्यम से विकसित भारत हेतु मानव पूंजी का विकास

Explanation / व्याख्या:

The 5th National Conference of Chief Secretaries, held at Pusa, Delhi from 26–28 December 2025, was addressed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who stressed the importance of cooperative federalism and Centre–State collaboration for achieving the goal of Viksit Bharat. The central theme, “Human Capital for Viksit Bharat”, highlighted sectors such as education, skill development, health, sports, and youth empowerment, recognising that nearly 70% of India’s population is of working age. The conference also encouraged States and Union Territories to identify 100 products each for domestic manufacturing, support the National Manufacturing Mission, and improve Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) at local levels.

26–28 दिसंबर 2025 को पुसा, नई दिल्ली में आयोजित पाँचवें राष्ट्रीय मुख्य सचिव सम्मेलन को प्रधानमंत्री नरेंद्र मोदी ने संबोधित किया। उन्होंने विकसित भारत के लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करने के लिए सहकारी संघवाद और केंद्र–राज्य सहयोग पर जोर दिया। सम्मेलन का केंद्रीय विषय “विकसित भारत के लिए मानव पूंजी” था, जिसमें शिक्षा, कौशल विकास, स्वास्थ्य, खेल और युवा सशक्तिकरण को प्रमुखता दी गई। यह इस तथ्य पर आधारित था कि भारत की लगभग 70% जनसंख्या कार्यशील आयु वर्ग में है। साथ ही, राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों को घरेलू विनिर्माण हेतु 100 उत्पादों की पहचान, राष्ट्रीय विनिर्माण मिशन को समर्थन देने और ईज ऑफ डूइंग बिजनेस (EoDB) सुधारने का आह्वान किया गया।

Q. 5.The recent divestment by SBI Mutual Fund involving Nazara Technologies is best described as which of the following capital market developments?

नज़ारा टेक्नोलॉजीज़ से संबंधित SBI म्यूचुअल फंड की हालिया हिस्सेदारी बिक्री को निम्न में से किस रूप में सबसे उपयुक्त रूप से वर्णित किया जा सकता है?

A. Strategic takeover of a gaming company by a public sector bank
सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र के बैंक द्वारा गेमिंग कंपनी का रणनीतिक अधिग्रहण

B. Partial stake sale through open market leading to reduced institutional holding
ओपन मार्केट के माध्यम से आंशिक हिस्सेदारी बिक्री, जिससे संस्थागत हिस्सेदारी में कमी

C. Mandatory divestment ordered by market regulator SEBI
बाज़ार नियामक सेबी द्वारा अनिवार्य रूप से कराई गई हिस्सेदारी बिक्री

D. Complete exit of SBI Mutual Fund from the gaming sector
गेमिंग क्षेत्र से SBI म्यूचुअल फंड का पूर्ण बाहर निकलना

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

B. Partial stake sale through open market leading to reduced institutional holding
ओपन मार्केट के माध्यम से आंशिक हिस्सेदारी बिक्री

Explanation / व्याख्या:

On 29 December 2025, SBI Mutual Fund divested a 2.43% stake in Nazara Technologies through open market transactions, amounting to about ₹216 crore. As a result, its shareholding in the gaming and sports media company declined from 5.78% to 3.35%. This transaction reflects a portfolio rebalancing decision by an institutional investor rather than a complete exit or regulatory compulsion. Such stake sales are common in capital markets and often aim at profit booking, risk adjustment, or asset allocation realignment.

29 दिसंबर 2025 को SBI म्यूचुअल फंड ने नज़ारा टेक्नोलॉजीज़ में अपनी 2.43% हिस्सेदारी ओपन मार्केट के माध्यम से बेच दी, जिसकी कुल कीमत लगभग ₹216 करोड़ रही। इस बिक्री के बाद कंपनी में SBI म्यूचुअल फंड की हिस्सेदारी 5.78% से घटकर 3.35% रह गई। यह कदम किसी नियामकीय दबाव या पूर्ण निकास के बजाय संस्थागत निवेशक द्वारा पोर्टफोलियो पुनर्संतुलन को दर्शाता है, जो पूंजी बाज़ार में एक सामान्य प्रक्रिया है।

Q.6.. With reference to the monetary penalty imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Valuecorp Securities & Finance Limited, consider the following statements:

भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक (RBI) द्वारा वैल्यूकॉर्प सिक्योरिटीज़ एंड फाइनेंस लिमिटेड पर लगाए गए मौद्रिक दंड के संदर्भ में निम्न कथनों पर विचार करें:

1. The penalty was imposed for non-compliance related to Credit Information Companies (CICs), transfer of loan exposure, and KYC norms.
   यह दंड क्रेडिट इन्फॉर्मेशन कंपनियों (CICs), ऋण जोखिम (loan exposure) के हस्तांतरण और KYC मानदंडों के उल्लंघन से संबंधित था।
2. The RBI exercised its powers under the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005 and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
   RBI ने यह दंड क्रेडिट इन्फॉर्मेशन कंपनियां (विनियमन) अधिनियम, 2005 और RBI अधिनियम, 1934 के तहत अपनी शक्तियों का प्रयोग करते हुए लगाया।
3. The penalty was imposed because the company failed to maintain the minimum Capital-to-Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR).
   यह दंड कंपनी द्वारा न्यूनतम पूंजी–जोखिम भारित परिसंपत्ति अनुपात (CRAR) बनाए रखने में विफल रहने के कारण लगाया गया।

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन–सा/से सही है/हैं?

A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2
B. 2 and 3 only / केवल 2 और 3
C. 1 and 3 only / केवल 1 और 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 / 1, 2 और 3

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2

Explanation / व्याख्या

• Statement 1 – Correct / कथन 1 सही:
  RBI imposed the penalty due to violations related to submission of data to CICs, improper transfer of loan exposure, and non-compliance with KYC norms.
  RBI ने CICs को डेटा न देना, अनधिकृत संस्थाओं को ऋण जोखिम का हस्तांतरण और KYC नियमों का पालन न करना जैसे उल्लंघनों के कारण दंड लगाया।
• Statement 2 – Correct / कथन 2 सही:
  The penalty was imposed using powers under the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005 and the RBI Act, 1934.
  यह दंड CIC अधिनियम, 2005 तथा RBI अधिनियम, 1934 के अंतर्गत लगाया गया।
• Statement 3 – Incorrect / कथन 3 गलत:
  The penalty was not related to CRAR but to credit reporting, loan transfer, UCIC assignment, and KYC-related lapses.
  यह दंड CRAR से संबंधित नहीं था।

Q.7. The decision to host select disciplines of the World Police and Fire Games (WPFG) 2029 at Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) is significant for India primarily because it:

राष्ट्र्रीय रक्षा विश्वविद्यालय (RRU) में वर्ल्ड पुलिस एंड फायर गेम्स (WPFG) 2029 की कुछ स्पर्धाओं की मेज़बानी भारत के लिए मुख्य रूप से किस कारण से महत्वपूर्ण है?

A. Establishes India as the permanent headquarters of the World Police and Fire Games Federation
भारत को वर्ल्ड पुलिस एंड फायर गेम्स फेडरेशन का स्थायी मुख्यालय बनाता है

B. Marks the inclusion of WPFG events under the Olympic Games framework
WPFG प्रतियोगिताओं को ओलंपिक खेलों के ढांचे में शामिल करता है

C. Represents India’s first-ever role as a host nation for WPFG, strengthening sports diplomacy and uniformed services’ engagement
WPFG की मेज़बानी करने वाला भारत पहला देश बनता है, जिससे खेल कूटनीति और वर्दीधारी सेवाओं के बीच सहयोग को बल मिलता है

D. Converts Rashtriya Raksha University into a national Olympic training centre
राष्ट्र्रीय रक्षा विश्वविद्यालय को राष्ट्रीय ओलंपिक प्रशिक्षण केंद्र में परिवर्तित करता है

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. Represents India’s first-ever role as a host nation for WPFG, strengthening sports diplomacy and uniformed services’ engagement
WPFG की मेज़बानी करने वाला भारत पहला देश बनता है

Explanation / व्याख्या:

Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU), Gujarat, hosting eight disciplines of the World Police and Fire Games 2029 is a landmark development as it marks India’s first time as a host nation for this prestigious international sporting event dedicated to police, fire services, and law enforcement personnel. The move enhances global sports diplomacy, promotes fitness, camaraderie, and professional exchange among uniformed services, and showcases India’s sports infrastructure and organisational capacity. It also aligns with India’s broader ambition to host large-scale global sporting events and strengthen sports science, governance, and integrity frameworks.

राष्ट्र्रीय रक्षा विश्वविद्यालय (RRU), गुजरात द्वारा वर्ल्ड पुलिस एंड फायर गेम्स 2029 की आठ स्पर्धाओं की मेज़बानी भारत के लिए ऐतिहासिक है, क्योंकि यह भारत की पहली बार WPFG की मेज़बानी को दर्शाता है। यह आयोजन पुलिस, अग्निशमन और कानून प्रवर्तन कर्मियों के लिए समर्पित एक अंतरराष्ट्रीय खेल प्रतियोगिता है। इससे खेल कूटनीति को बढ़ावा, वर्दीधारी सेवाओं के बीच सौहार्द और फिटनेस को प्रोत्साहन, तथा भारत की खेल अवसंरचना और आयोजन क्षमता का वैश्विक प्रदर्शन होता है। यह कदम बड़े अंतरराष्ट्रीय खेल आयोजनों की मेज़बानी की भारत की दीर्घकालिक महत्वाकांक्षा से भी जुड़ा है।

Q.8. Who won the Women’s Singles title at the 87th Senior National Badminton Championships, held in Vijayawada, after staging a comeback victory in the final?

विजयवाड़ा में आयोजित 87वीं सीनियर नेशनल बैडमिंटन चैंपियनशिप में महिला एकल (Women’s Singles) का खिताब किस खिलाड़ी ने जीतकर वापसी जीत दर्ज की?

A. Surya Charishma Tamiri / सूर्य चरिश्मा तामिरी
B. Tanvi Patri / तन्वी पात्रि
C. Ashwini Bhat K / अश्विनी भट्ट के
D. Radhika Sharma / राधिका शर्मा

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. Surya Charishma Tamiri / सूर्य चरिश्मा तामिरी

Explanation / व्याख्या:

Indian shuttler Surya Charishma Tamiri won the Women’s Singles title at the 87th Senior National Badminton Championships held in Vijayawada. In the final, she made a strong comeback after losing the first game to defeat Tanvi Patri with a score of 17–21, 21–12, 21–14. Her victory highlighted her stamina, composure, and tactical shot selection, reinforcing her status as a rising talent in Indian badminton and strengthening her prospects for future national selection.

भारतीय बैडमिंटन खिलाड़ी सूर्य चरिश्मा तामिरी ने विजयवाड़ा में आयोजित 87वीं सीनियर नेशनल बैडमिंटन चैंपियनशिप में महिला एकल खिताब अपने नाम किया। फाइनल मुकाबले में उन्होंने पहला गेम हारने के बाद शानदार वापसी करते हुए तन्वी पात्रि को 17–21, 21–12, 21–14 से हराया। यह जीत उनकी धैर्यशीलता, फिटनेस और रणनीतिक खेल को दर्शाती है और उन्हें भारतीय बैडमिंटन की उभरती प्रतिभाओं में मजबूत स्थान दिलाती है।

Q.9. A historic bowling record was created in men’s Twenty20 International cricket in December 2025. Which of the following correctly identifies the player and the achievement?

दिसंबर 2025 में पुरुष टी20 अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में एक ऐतिहासिक गेंदबाज़ी रिकॉर्ड बना। निम्न में से कौन–सा विकल्प खिलाड़ी और उपलब्धि की सही पहचान करता है?

A. Syazrul Idrus – First bowler to take 7 wickets in a men’s T20I
स्याजरुल इद्रुस – पुरुष टी20I में 7 विकेट लेने वाले पहले गेंदबाज़

B. Ali Dawood – Best bowling figures of 7/19 in men’s T20I cricket
अली दाऊद – पुरुष टी20I में 7/19 के सर्वश्रेष्ठ आंकड़े

C. Wanindu Hasaranga – First spinner to take 6 wickets in a T20I final
वानिंदु हसरंगा – टी20I फाइनल में 6 विकेट लेने वाले पहले स्पिनर

D. Sonam Yeshey – First bowler to take 8 wickets in a men’s T20 International
सोनम येशे – पुरुष टी20 अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में 8 विकेट लेने वाले पहले गेंदबाज़

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. Sonam Yeshey – First bowler to take 8 wickets in a men’s T20 International
सोनम येशे – पुरुष टी20 अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में 8 विकेट लेने वाले पहले गेंदबाज़

Explanation / व्याख्या:

Bhutan’s Sonam Yeshey created history by becoming the first bowler ever to take eight wickets in a men’s Twenty20 International match. He achieved this unprecedented feat against Myanmar during the third T20I at Gelephu on 29 December 2025, registering remarkable bowling figures of 8 wickets for just 7 runs in 4 overs, including a maiden over. His performance surpassed the previous record of seven wickets in an innings, making it the most dominant bowling spell in men’s T20I cricket history. The spell played a crucial role in bowling Myanmar out for just 45 runs, underlining Bhutan’s growing presence in international cricket.

भूटान के सोनम येशे ने इतिहास रचते हुए पुरुष टी20 अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में एक पारी में 8 विकेट लेने वाले पहले गेंदबाज़ बनने का गौरव हासिल किया। उन्होंने यह रिकॉर्ड 29 दिसंबर 2025 को गेलफू में म्यांमार के खिलाफ तीसरे टी20I मैच में बनाया। उन्होंने 4 ओवर में केवल 7 रन देकर 8 विकेट लिए, जिसमें एक मेडन ओवर भी शामिल था। यह प्रदर्शन पहले के 7 विकेट के रिकॉर्ड से बेहतर रहा और पुरुष टी20I क्रिकेट की अब तक की सबसे प्रभावशाली गेंदबाज़ी मानी जा रही है। उनकी घातक गेंदबाज़ी से म्यांमार की टीम मात्र 45 रन पर सिमट गई।

Q.10. The Anti-Terror Conference (ATC) 2025, recently inaugurated in New Delhi, is significant for strengthening India’s counter-terror architecture. Which of the following best captures the core contribution of ATC 2025?

हाल ही में नई दिल्ली में आयोजित ‘एंटी–टेरर कॉन्फ्रेंस (ATC) 2025’ भारत की आतंकवाद–रोधी व्यवस्था को सशक्त बनाने में महत्वपूर्ण है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन–सा विकल्प इसके मुख्य योगदान को सर्वाधिक सही रूप में दर्शाता है?

A. Expansion of military combat operations along international borders
अंतरराष्ट्रीय सीमाओं पर सैन्य युद्ध अभियानों का विस्तार

B. Launch of technology-driven national platforms for intelligence sharing, crime mapping and weapons tracking
खुफिया साझा करने, अपराध मानचित्रण और हथियार ट्रैकिंग हेतु तकनीक–आधारित राष्ट्रीय प्लेटफॉर्म की शुरुआत

C. Replacement of state police forces by central agencies in terror cases
आतंक मामलों में राज्य पुलिस बलों को केंद्रीय एजेंसियों से प्रतिस्थापित करना

D. Introduction of a new constitutional amendment on internal security
आंतरिक सुरक्षा पर नया संवैधानिक संशोधन लागू करना

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Launch of technology-driven national platforms for intelligence sharing, crime mapping and weapons tracking
तकनीक–आधारित राष्ट्रीय प्लेटफॉर्म की शुरुआत

Explanation / व्याख्या

The Anti-Terror Conference 2025, organised by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), focused on creating a coordinated, technology-driven counter-terror framework. During the conference, Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched major digital tools to enhance intelligence sharing, investigation, prosecution, and weapons monitoring across India.
ATC-2025 का आयोजन गृह मंत्रालय के अंतर्गत NIA द्वारा किया गया, जिसका उद्देश्य तकनीक–आधारित, समन्वित आतंकवाद–रोधी ढांचे को मजबूत करना था। इस दौरान कई राष्ट्रीय डिजिटल टूल लॉन्च किए गए।

Q.11. A major batting milestone in women’s international cricket was achieved recently. Which of the following correctly describes this achievement?

महिला अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में हाल ही में एक महत्वपूर्ण बल्लेबाज़ी उपलब्धि हासिल की गई। निम्न में से कौन–सा विकल्प इसे सही रूप में दर्शाता है?

A. Mithali Raj became the first woman cricketer to score 10,000 international runs
मिताली राज 10,000 अंतरराष्ट्रीय रन बनाने वाली पहली महिला क्रिकेटर बनीं

B. Harmanpreet Kaur became the second Indian woman to reach 10,000 international runs
हरमनप्रीत कौर 10,000 अंतरराष्ट्रीय रन बनाने वाली दूसरी भारतीय महिला बनीं

C. Suzie Bates became the first Asian woman to score 10,000 international runs
सूज़ी बेट्स 10,000 अंतरराष्ट्रीय रन बनाने वाली पहली एशियाई महिला बनीं

D. Smriti Mandhana became the second Indian woman and fourth player globally to score 10,000 international runs
स्मृति मंधाना 10,000 अंतरराष्ट्रीय रन बनाने वाली दूसरी भारतीय महिला और विश्व की चौथी खिलाड़ी बनीं

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

D. Smriti Mandhana became the second Indian woman and fourth player globally to score 10,000 international runs
स्मृति मंधाना 10,000 अंतरराष्ट्रीय रन बनाने वाली दूसरी भारतीय महिला और विश्व की चौथी खिलाड़ी बनीं

Explanation / व्याख्या:

Indian cricketer Smriti Mandhana achieved a historic milestone by becoming the second Indian woman and the fourth woman globally to score 10,000 runs in international cricket. She reached this landmark during the fourth T20I against Sri Lanka at the Greenfield International Stadium, Thiruvananthapuram, accomplishing it in the seventh over of India’s innings. With this feat, she joined an elite list comprising Mithali Raj, Suzie Bates, and Charlotte Edwards, underlining her stature as one of the finest batters of the modern era.

भारतीय क्रिकेटर स्मृति मंधाना ने अंतरराष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट में 10,000 रन पूरे कर एक ऐतिहासिक उपलब्धि हासिल की। वह ऐसा करने वाली दूसरी भारतीय महिला और विश्व की चौथी महिला खिलाड़ी बन गईं। उन्होंने यह उपलब्धि ग्रीनफील्ड इंटरनेशनल स्टेडियम, तिरुवनंतपुरम में श्रीलंका के खिलाफ चौथे टी20I मैच के दौरान भारत की पारी के सातवें ओवर में हासिल की। इस उपलब्धि के साथ वह मिताली राज, सूज़ी बेट्स और शार्लेट एडवर्ड्स जैसे दिग्गज खिलाड़ियों की सूची में शामिल हो गईं।

Q.12. India won two medals at the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championships 2025 held in Doha. Which of the following options correctly identifies the Indian medal winners and their respective categories?

दोहा में आयोजित FIDE वर्ल्ड रैपिड शतरंज चैंपियनशिप 2025 में भारत ने दो पदक जीते। निम्नलिखित में से कौन–सा विकल्प भारतीय पदक विजेताओं और उनकी श्रेणियों की सही पहचान करता है?

A. Koneru Humpy (Women’s – Bronze) and Arjun Erigaisi (Open – Bronze)
कोनेरु हम्पी (महिला – कांस्य) और अर्जुन एरिगैसी (ओपन – कांस्य)

B. R. Vaishali (Women’s – Silver) and D. Gukesh (Open – Bronze)
आर. वैशाली (महिला – रजत) और डी. गुकेश (ओपन – कांस्य)

C. Divya Deshmukh (Women’s – Bronze) and Nihal Sarin (Open – Silver)
दिव्या देशमुख (महिला – कांस्य) और निहाल सरिन (ओपन – रजत)

D. Koneru Humpy (Women’s – Gold) and R. Praggnanandhaa (Open – Bronze)
कोनेरु हम्पी (महिला – स्वर्ण) और आर. प्रज्ञानानंदा (ओपन – कांस्य)

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

A. Koneru Humpy (Women’s – Bronze) and Arjun Erigaisi (Open – Bronze)

Explanation / व्याख्या:

At the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championships 2025 in Doha, India secured two bronze medals, underlining its rising strength in global chess. Koneru Humpy, a former World Rapid Champion, finished third in the Women’s section with 8.5 points, losing out on gold due to tie-break rules despite matching the top score. In the Open section, Arjun Erigaisi delivered a strong performance, scoring 9.5 points and clinching the bronze medal on tie-breaks, behind Magnus Carlsen and Vladislav Artemiev. These results reflect India’s consistent presence among the world’s chess elite.

दोहा में आयोजित FIDE वर्ल्ड रैपिड शतरंज चैंपियनशिप 2025 में भारत ने दो कांस्य पदक जीतकर वैश्विक शतरंज में अपनी मजबूत उपस्थिति दर्ज कराई। कोनेरु हम्पी ने महिला वर्ग में 8.5 अंक प्राप्त किए और टाई–ब्रेक नियमों के कारण तीसरे स्थान पर रहीं। वहीं ओपन वर्ग में अर्जुन एरिगैसी ने 9.5 अंक हासिल कर कांस्य पदक जीता। ये उपलब्धियाँ अंतरराष्ट्रीय शतरंज में भारत की बढ़ती श्रेष्ठता को दर्शाती हैं।

Q.13. The recent passing of Khaleda Zia is significant in the political history of Bangladesh. Which of the following statements best describes her political legacy?

हाल ही में दिवंगत हुईं खालिदा ज़िया का निधन बांग्लादेश के राजनीतिक इतिहास में महत्वपूर्ण है। निम्नलिखित में से कौन–सा विकल्प उनके राजनीतिक योगदान को सबसे सही रूप में दर्शाता है?

A. She was the longest-serving Prime Minister of Bangladesh and founder of the Awami League
वह बांग्लादेश की सबसे लंबे समय तक सेवा करने वाली प्रधानमंत्री और अवामी लीग की संस्थापक थीं

B. She played a ceremonial role in politics without holding executive office
उन्होंने बिना किसी कार्यकारी पद के राजनीति में केवल औपचारिक भूमिका निभाई

C. She was the first woman Prime Minister of Bangladesh and a two-time Prime Minister representing the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP)
वह बांग्लादेश की पहली महिला प्रधानमंत्री थीं और बांग्लादेश नेशनलिस्ट पार्टी (BNP) की ओर से दो बार प्रधानमंत्री रहीं

D. She served as President of Bangladesh during the military regime
उन्होंने सैन्य शासन के दौरान बांग्लादेश के राष्ट्रपति के रूप में कार्य किया

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:

C. She was the first woman Prime Minister of Bangladesh and a two-time Prime Minister representing the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP)

Explanation / व्याख्या:

Khaleda Zia, former Prime Minister of Bangladesh and Chairperson of the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP), passed away on 30 December 2025 at the age of 80. She was a towering figure in Bangladesh’s politics and became the first woman Prime Minister of the country, assuming office in 1991 after the restoration of parliamentary democracy. She served two terms as Prime Minister (1991–1996 and 2001–2006) and was known for her long-standing political rivalry with Sheikh Hasina, which shaped Bangladesh’s political discourse for decades. Her acquittal by the Supreme Court of Bangladesh in January 2025 marked the end of prolonged legal battles.

बांग्लादेश की पूर्व प्रधानमंत्री और बांग्लादेश नेशनलिस्ट पार्टी (BNP) की अध्यक्ष खालिदा ज़िया का 30 दिसंबर 2025 को 80 वर्ष की आयु में निधन हो गया। वह बांग्लादेश की राजनीति की एक प्रमुख हस्ती थीं और देश की पहली महिला प्रधानमंत्री बनीं। उन्होंने 1991 में संसदीय लोकतंत्र की बहाली के बाद प्रधानमंत्री पद संभाला और दो कार्यकाल (1991–1996 तथा 2001–2006) तक देश का नेतृत्व किया। उनकी शेख हसीना के साथ राजनीतिक प्रतिद्वंद्विता ने दशकों तक बांग्लादेश की राजनीति को प्रभावित किया। जनवरी 2025 में सुप्रीम कोर्ट द्वारा बरी किए जाने के साथ उनके लंबे कानूनी विवादों का अंत हुआ।

Q.14.. With reference to the Tracxn India Tech Annual Funding Report 2025, consider the following statements:

Tracxn India Tech Annual Funding Report 2025 के संदर्भ में निम्न कथनों पर विचार करें:

1. India added five new unicorns in 2025, while a total of 111 unicorns were created globally during the year.
   भारत में 2025 के दौरान पाँच नए यूनिकॉर्न जुड़े, जबकि वैश्विक स्तर पर कुल 111 यूनिकॉर्न बने।
2. India ranks third globally in terms of the number of unicorns, after the United States and China.
   यूनिकॉर्न की संख्या के मामले में भारत विश्व में अमेरिका और चीन के बाद तीसरे स्थान पर है।
3. Mumbai has the highest concentration of unicorns in India, followed by Bengaluru and Gurugram.
   भारत में सबसे अधिक यूनिकॉर्न मुंबई में हैं, इसके बाद बेंगलुरु और गुरुग्राम का स्थान है।

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौन–सा/से सही है/हैं?

A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2
B. 2 and 3 only / केवल 2 और 3
C. 1 and 3 only / केवल 1 और 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 / 1, 2 और 3

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
A. 1 and 2 only / केवल 1 और 2

Explanation / व्याख्या

• Statement 1 – Correct / कथन 1 सही:
  As per the Tracxn report, India added 5 unicorns in 2025, while 111 unicorns were created globally during the year.
  Tracxn रिपोर्ट के अनुसार 2025 में भारत में 5 नए यूनिकॉर्न बने, जबकि वैश्विक स्तर पर 111 यूनिकॉर्न बने।
• Statement 2 – Correct / कथन 2 सही:
  India ranks third globally in terms of unicorn count, after the United States (1,104) and China (249).
  यूनिकॉर्न की संख्या के मामले में भारत विश्व में तीसरे स्थान पर है—अमेरिका और चीन के बाद।
• Statement 3 – Incorrect / कथन 3 गलत:
  Bengaluru has the highest concentration of unicorns (52), followed by Gurugram (20) and Mumbai (19).
  भारत में सबसे अधिक यूनिकॉर्न बेंगलुरु में हैं, न कि मुंबई में।

Q.15. The recently inaugurated Sharadchandra Pawar Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence aims to strengthen India’s AI ecosystem through industry–academia collaboration. It has been inaugurated by and is located at which of the following pairs?

हाल ही में उद्घाटित ‘शरदचंद्र पवार सेंटर ऑफ एक्सीलेंस इन आर्टिफिशियल इंटेलिजेंस’ को उद्योग–शैक्षणिक सहयोग के माध्यम से भारत के AI इकोसिस्टम को सुदृढ़ करने के उद्देश्य से स्थापित किया गया है। इसका उद्घाटन किसने किया और यह कहाँ स्थित है?

A. Mukesh Ambani – Pune / मुकेश अंबानी – पुणे
B. Gautam Adani – Baramati / गौतम अडानी – बारामती
C. Ratan Tata – Nagpur / रतन टाटा – नागपुर
D. Nandan Nilekani – Mumbai / नंदन नीलेकणी – मुंबई

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Gautam Adani – Baramati / गौतम अडानी – बारामती

Explanation / व्याख्या

The Sharadchandra Pawar Centre of Excellence in Artificial Intelligence was inaugurated by industrialist Gautam Adani in Baramati, Maharashtra. The centre is established under Vidya Pratishthan and is fully funded by the Adani Group Chairman, focusing on advanced research, innovation, and AI-driven skill development.
शरदचंद्र पवार सेंटर ऑफ एक्सीलेंस इन आर्टिफिशियल इंटेलिजेंस का उद्घाटन उद्योगपति गौतम अडानी द्वारा महाराष्ट्र के बारामती में किया गया। यह केंद्र विद्या प्रतिष्ठान के अंतर्गत स्थापित है और इसे अडानी समूह के चेयरमैन द्वारा पूर्ण रूप से वित्तपोषित किया गया है।

Q.16. India’s first Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model medical colleges, aimed at addressing regional imbalance in medical education, are being established in which state, and the first phase includes colleges in which districts?

भारत के पहले पब्लिक–प्राइवेट पार्टनरशिप (PPP) मॉडल मेडिकल कॉलेज किस राज्य में स्थापित किए जा रहे हैं और पहले चरण में किन जिलों को शामिल किया गया है?

A. Rajasthan – Udaipur and Dungarpur / राजस्थान – उदयपुर और डूंगरपुर
B. Chhattisgarh – Bastar and Dantewada / छत्तीसगढ़ – बस्तर और दंतेवाड़ा
C. Madhya Pradesh – Dhar and Betul / मध्य प्रदेश – धार और बैतूल
D. Odisha – Koraput and Rayagada / ओडिशा – कोरापुट और रायगढ़ा

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
C. Madhya Pradesh – Dhar and Betul / मध्य प्रदेश – धार और बैतूल

Explanation / व्याख्या

India’s first PPP-model medical colleges are being established in Madhya Pradesh, making it the first state to operationalise medical colleges under the PPP framework, especially in tribal and backward regions. The first phase includes medical colleges in Dhar (western MP) and Betul (central MP), linked with district hospitals and developed as per National Medical Commission (NMC) norms.
भारत के पहले PPP मॉडल मेडिकल कॉलेज मध्य प्रदेश में स्थापित किए जा रहे हैं। यह राज्य PPP मॉडल के तहत मेडिकल कॉलेजों को लागू करने वाला भारत का पहला राज्य बन गया है। पहले चरण में धार और बैतूल जिलों को शामिल किया गया है।

Q.17. The Supreme Court recently reaffirmed that personal liberty is not a gift of the State but its first obligation while deciding a case related to passport renewal. This judgment is best associated with which of the following?

हाल ही में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने पासपोर्ट नवीनीकरण से जुड़े एक मामले में कहा कि व्यक्तिगत स्वतंत्रता राज्य की देन नहीं बल्कि उसका प्रथम दायित्व है। यह निर्णय किससे सर्वाधिक संबंधित है?

A. Absolute bar on passport issuance when criminal cases are pending
आपराधिक मामलों के लंबित होने पर पासपोर्ट जारी करने पर पूर्ण प्रतिबंध

B. Primacy of Article 21 and binding nature of judicial permission over passport authorities
अनुच्छेद 21 की प्रधानता और पासपोर्ट प्राधिकरणों पर न्यायिक अनुमति की बाध्यता

C. Exclusive power of passport authorities to decide foreign travel of accused
अभियुक्त की विदेश यात्रा पर निर्णय लेने का पूर्ण अधिकार पासपोर्ट प्राधिकरण को

D. Automatic right to travel abroad upon possession of a passport
पासपोर्ट होने मात्र से विदेश यात्रा का स्वतः अधिकार

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Primacy of Article 21 and binding nature of judicial permission over passport authorities
अनुच्छेद 21 की प्रधानता और पासपोर्ट प्राधिकरणों पर न्यायिक अनुमति की बाध्यता

Explanation / व्याख्या

The Supreme Court, in Mahesh Agarwal vs Union of India, held that mere pendency of criminal proceedings does not automatically disqualify a person from holding or renewing a passport. When a criminal court permits passport issuance or renewal with conditions, passport authorities are bound to respect such judicial orders.
सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने महेश अग्रवाल बनाम भारत संघ मामले में स्पष्ट किया कि केवल आपराधिक मामलों का लंबित होना पासपोर्ट के नवीनीकरण से स्वतः वंचित नहीं करता। यदि आपराधिक न्यायालय शर्तों सहित अनुमति देता है, तो पासपोर्ट प्राधिकरण उस आदेश की अवहेलना नहीं कर सकते।

Q.18. According to the Hurun India Rich List 2025, who has emerged as the richest Indian-origin professional manager in the world, and with which company is she associated?

Hurun India Rich List 2025 के अनुसार, विश्व की सबसे अमीर भारतीय–मूल पेशेवर प्रबंधक कौन हैं और वह किस कंपनी से संबंधित हैं?

A. Satya Nadella – Microsoft / सत्य नडेला – माइक्रोसॉफ्ट
B. Sundar Pichai – Alphabet / सुंदर पिचाई – अल्फाबेट
C. Jayshree Ullal – Arista Networks / जयश्री उल्लाल – अरिस्टा नेटवर्क्स
D. Shantanu Narayen – Adobe / शान्तनु नारायण – एडोबी

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
C. Jayshree Ullal – Arista Networks
जयश्री उल्लाल – अरिस्टा नेटवर्क्स

Explanation / व्याख्या

As per the Hurun India Rich List 2025, Jayshree Ullal, President and CEO of Arista Networks, has been named the richest Indian-origin professional manager globally, with a net worth of ₹50,170 crore, surpassing other prominent tech leaders of Indian origin.
Hurun India Rich List 2025 के अनुसार, अरिस्टा नेटवर्क्स की अध्यक्ष एवं CEO जयश्री उल्लाल को विश्व की सबसे अमीर भारतीय–मूल पेशेवर प्रबंधक घोषित किया गया है, जिनकी कुल संपत्ति ₹50,170 करोड़ है।

Q.19. India’s rare earth sector faces a significant gap between reserves and production. Which of the following best explains the primary structural reason for India’s limited rare earth output despite having substantial reserves?

भारत के पास पर्याप्त रेयर अर्थ भंडार होने के बावजूद उत्पादन कम है। इसके पीछे सबसे प्रमुख संरचनात्मक कारण क्या है?

A. Geological scarcity of rare earth minerals
रेयर अर्थ खनिजों की भूवैज्ञानिक कमी

B. Lack of processing and refining capacity along with strict regulatory control
प्रसंस्करण एवं परिष्करण क्षमता की कमी तथा कड़ा नियामकीय नियंत्रण

C. Absence of domestic demand for rare earth–based products
रेयर अर्थ आधारित उत्पादों की घरेलू मांग का अभाव

D. Complete dependence on imported rare earth concentrates
आयातित रेयर अर्थ कंसन्ट्रेट पर पूर्ण निर्भरता

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Lack of processing and refining capacity along with strict regulatory control
प्रसंस्करण एवं परिष्करण क्षमता की कमी तथा कड़ा नियामकीय नियंत्रण

Explanation / व्याख्या

The report highlights that India’s challenge is not resource availability but execution and capacity building. Although India ranks 3rd globally in rare earth reserves, its production remains very low due to limited refining and separation infrastructure, strict regulations (especially due to thorium in monazite), and dominance of a single PSU in mining and processing.
रिपोर्ट के अनुसार भारत की समस्या भंडार की नहीं बल्कि क्रियान्वयन और क्षमता निर्माण की है। पर्याप्त भंडार होने के बावजूद परिष्करण एवं पृथक्करण क्षमता की भारी कमी, कठोर नियामकीय ढांचा और मोनाज़ाइट में थोरियम की उपस्थिति के कारण उत्पादन सीमित है।

Q.20. The recent approval of defence procurement proposals worth ₹79,000 crore by the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) primarily reflects India’s focus on which of the following objectives?

रक्षा अधिग्रहण परिषद (DAC) द्वारा हाल ही में ₹79,000 करोड़ के रक्षा खरीद प्रस्तावों की स्वीकृति मुख्य रूप से भारत के किस उद्देश्य को दर्शाती है?

A. Expanding foreign defence imports to modernise forces
सशस्त्र बलों के आधुनिकीकरण हेतु विदेशी रक्षा आयात बढ़ाना

B. Strengthening self-reliance through indigenisation under Buy (Indian–IDDM) category
Buy (Indian–IDDM) श्रेणी के तहत स्वदेशीकरण के माध्यम से आत्मनिर्भरता को सुदृढ़ करना

C. Downsizing conventional forces in favour of cyber warfare
पारंपरिक बलों को घटाकर साइबर युद्ध पर जोर देना

D. Limiting defence acquisitions only to the Indian Navy
रक्षा खरीद को केवल भारतीय नौसेना तक सीमित करना

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Strengthening self-reliance through indigenisation under Buy (Indian–IDDM) category
Buy (Indian–IDDM) श्रेणी के तहत स्वदेशीकरण के माध्यम से आत्मनिर्भरता को सुदृढ़ करना

Explanation / व्याख्या

The Defence Acquisition Council, chaired by Union Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, approved procurement proposals worth ₹79,000 crore under the Buy (Indian–Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured – IDDM) category. These approvals for the Indian Army, Navy and Air Force emphasise Make in India in defence, operational readiness, and reduced dependence on imports.
रक्षा मंत्री राजनाथ सिंह की अध्यक्षता में DAC ने Buy (Indian–IDDM) श्रेणी के अंतर्गत ₹79,000 करोड़ के रक्षा खरीद प्रस्तावों को मंजूरी दी। ये स्वीकृतियाँ सेना, नौसेना और वायुसेना की क्षमताओं को बढ़ाने के साथ–साथ रक्षा क्षेत्र में आत्मनिर्भर भारत को मजबूत करती हैं।

Q.21. The maiden overseas voyage of the engine-less Indian Naval Sailing Vessel INSV Kaundinya, recently in news, is significant primarily because it:

हाल ही में समाचारों में रही इंजन–रहित भारतीय नौसैनिक नौका ‘INSV कौण्डिन्य’ की पहली अंतरराष्ट्रीय समुद्री यात्रा का प्रमुख महत्व क्या है?

A. Demonstrates India’s first nuclear-powered sailing capability
भारत की पहली परमाणु–चालित नौकायन क्षमता का प्रदर्शन

B. Revives ancient Indo–Oman maritime links using traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques
पारंपरिक सिलाई–आधारित जहाज निर्माण तकनीक से भारत–ओमान के प्राचीन समुद्री संपर्कों को पुनर्जीवित करना

C. Tests modern autonomous navigation systems in the Arabian Sea
अरब सागर में आधुनिक स्वायत्त नेविगेशन प्रणालियों का परीक्षण

D. Establishes a permanent naval logistics route between Gujarat and Oman
गुजरात और ओमान के बीच स्थायी नौसैनिक लॉजिस्टिक्स मार्ग की स्थापना

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Revives ancient Indo–Oman maritime links using traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques
पारंपरिक सिलाई–आधारित जहाज निर्माण तकनीक से भारत–ओमान के प्राचीन समुद्री संपर्कों को पुनर्जीवित करना

Explanation / व्याख्या

INSV Kaundinya embarked on its maiden overseas voyage from Porbandar (Gujarat) to Muscat (Oman) to retrace ancient maritime routes connecting India’s western coast with Oman. The vessel is built using traditional stitched shipbuilding techniques, inspired by a 5th-century Ajanta Caves painting, symbolising India’s rich seafaring heritage.
INSV कौण्डिन्य ने पोरबंदर से मस्कट तक अपनी पहली अंतरराष्ट्रीय समुद्री यात्रा भारत और ओमान के बीच प्राचीन समुद्री मार्गों को पुनर्जीवित करने के उद्देश्य से की है। यह जहाज अजंता गुफाओं की 5वीं शताब्दी की चित्रकला से प्रेरित पारंपरिक तकनीक से निर्मित है।

Q.22. The recent launch of the Soyuz-2.1b rocket carrying 52 satellites is significant because it highlights which of the following aspects of Russia’s space programme?

52 उपग्रहों को लेकर सोयुज-2.1b रॉकेट का हालिया प्रक्षेपण रूस के अंतरिक्ष कार्यक्रम के किस पहलू को प्रमुख रूप से दर्शाता है?

A. Exclusive focus on manned space missions
केवल मानवयुक्त अंतरिक्ष अभियानों पर ध्यान

B. Expansion of Earth-observation, climate monitoring and international collaboration using small satellites
पृथ्वी अवलोकन, जलवायु निगरानी और लघु उपग्रहों के माध्यम से अंतरराष्ट्रीय सहयोग का विस्तार

C. Development of interplanetary deep-space probes
अंतरग्रहीय गहन अंतरिक्ष प्रोब का विकास

D. Establishment of a permanent space station in Low Earth Orbit
निम्न पृथ्वी कक्षा में स्थायी अंतरिक्ष स्टेशन की स्थापना

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर:
B. Expansion of Earth-observation, climate monitoring and international collaboration using small satellites
पृथ्वी अवलोकन, जलवायु निगरानी और लघु उपग्रहों के माध्यम से अंतरराष्ट्रीय सहयोग का विस्तार

Explanation / व्याख्या

The Soyuz-2.1b rocket launched from Vostochny Cosmodrome carried 52 satellites, including Aist-2T Earth-observation satellites and 50 small satellites (CubeSats) developed under the Universat programme. The mission focused on 3-D Earth imaging, disaster monitoring, climate change studies, and space weather research, along with cooperation with friendly countries.
वोस्तोचनी कॉस्मोड्रोम से प्रक्षेपित सोयुज-2.1b रॉकेट ने 52 उपग्रह ले जाए, जिनमें Aist-2T पृथ्वी अवलोकन उपग्रह और Universat कार्यक्रम के तहत बने 50 लघु उपग्रह शामिल थे। यह मिशन 3-D पृथ्वी मॉडलिंग, आपदा निगरानी, जलवायु परिवर्तन अध्ययन और अंतरराष्ट्रीय सहयोग पर केंद्रित था।

Q.1. हिमाचल प्रदेश सरकार द्वारा कैनबिस (हेम्प) की खेती को वैध और विनियमित करने की प्रस्तावित नीति के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन–सा कथन सही है?

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Himachal Pradesh government’s proposed policy to legalise and regulate cannabis (hemp) cultivation?

A. यह नीति NDPS Act, 1985 के बाहर राज्य द्वारा स्वतंत्र रूप से लागू की जाएगी।
This policy will be implemented independently of the NDPS Act, 1985.

B. प्रस्तावित नीति से राज्य को प्रतिवर्ष ₹5,000 करोड़ से अधिक का राजस्व प्राप्त होने का अनुमान है।
The policy is expected to generate more than ₹5,000 crore annually.

C. नीति NDPS Act, 1985 एवं NDPS Rules, 1989 के अंतर्गत नियंत्रित खेती पर आधारित होगी।
The policy will be based on regulated cultivation under the NDPS Act, 1985 and NDPS Rules, 1989.

D. नीति को सीधे लागू किया जाएगा, इसके लिए राज्य मंत्रिमंडल की स्वीकृति आवश्यक नहीं होगी।
The policy will be implemented directly without Cabinet approval.

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर: C

Explanation / व्याख्या:

The Himachal Pradesh government is framing a policy to legalise and regulate cannabis (hemp) cultivation strictly in accordance with the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 and NDPS Rules, 1989. The policy will be placed before the State Cabinet for approval and is expected to generate ₹1,000–2,000 crore annually, while ensuring legal oversight and preventing misuse.

हिमाचल प्रदेश सरकार कैनबिस (हेम्प) की खेती को वैध और नियंत्रित करने के लिए एक नीति तैयार कर रही है, जो NDPS अधिनियम, 1985 और NDPS नियम, 1989 के प्रावधानों के अनुरूप होगी। इस नीति को राज्य मंत्रिमंडल की स्वीकृति के लिए प्रस्तुत किया जाएगा और इससे ₹1,000–2,000 करोड़ वार्षिक राजस्व प्राप्त होने का अनुमान है।

Q.2. हाल ही में हिमाचल प्रदेश के सेब उत्पादकों द्वारा राज्यपाल से हस्तक्षेप की मांग किस प्रस्तावित नीति परिवर्तन के कारण की गई?

Recently, apple growers of Himachal Pradesh sought the Governor’s intervention due to which proposed policy change?

A. हिमाचल प्रदेश में सेब निर्यात पर प्रतिबंध
Ban on apple exports from Himachal Pradesh

B. सेब पर वस्तु एवं सेवा कर (GST) लगाए जाने का प्रस्ताव
Proposal to impose GST on apples

C. न्यूज़ीलैंड से आयातित सेब पर आयात शुल्क 50% से घटाकर 25% करने का केंद्र सरकार का प्रस्ताव
Central Government’s proposal to reduce import duty on New Zealand apples from 50% to 25%

D. सेब खरीद के लिए राज्य स्तरीय निगम को समाप्त करने का निर्णय
Decision to abolish the State-level apple procurement corporation

✅ Correct Answer / सही उत्तर: C

Explanation / व्याख्या:
Apple growers in Himachal Pradesh have raised concerns over the Centre’s proposal to reduce import duty on apples imported from New Zealand from 50% to 25%, likely to be implemented from 2026–27 as part of a trade agreement. Growers fear that cheaper imported apples will undercut domestic produce, affecting prices and threatening the livelihoods of local orchardists. Consequently, a delegation led by Kuldeep Singh Rathore, MLA from Theog, submitted a memorandum to Governor Shiv Pratap Shukla, seeking his intervention.

हिमाचल प्रदेश के सेब उत्पादकों ने केंद्र सरकार द्वारा न्यूज़ीलैंड से आयातित सेब पर आयात शुल्क 50% से घटाकर 25% करने के प्रस्ताव को लेकर चिंता व्यक्त की है। यह प्रस्ताव 2026–27 से लागू हो सकता है। सेब उत्पादकों का मानना है कि इससे सस्ते आयातित सेब घरेलू सेब के दाम गिरा देंगे और बागवानी पर आधारित आजीविका प्रभावित होगी। इसी कारण थियोग से विधायक कुलदीप सिंह राठौर के नेतृत्व में प्रतिनिधिमंडल ने राज्यपाल शिव प्रताप शुक्ला से हस्तक्षेप की मांग की।